CAT 2023 Slot 1 Question Paper With Solution | VARC, LRDI, QA

Explanation

The author mentions Galbraith’s “The Affluent Society” in the context of Marshall Sahlins's essay, "The Original Affluent Society," to underscore the complementary nature of their perspectives on contemporary society. The passage suggests that both works share a critical stance towards consumerism and inequality in modern times. Galbraith's book, known for its skeptical portrayal of postwar prosperity and economic disparities, serves as a point of reference to highlight the alignment between Sahlins's views and Galbraith's critique of the prevailing socio-economic conditions. By referencing "The Affluent Society," the passage aims to show that Sahlins's essay is part of a broader intellectual discourse that challenges the dominant economic narratives of the time.

Option 1, proposing that Galbraith’s theories refute Sahlins’s thesis on the contentment of pre-hunter-gatherer communities, is inaccurate. The passage doesn't indicate any contradiction or refutation between Galbraith's theories and Sahlins's thesis. Instead, it emphasizes a shared critique of contemporary consumerism and inequality.

Option 2, suggesting that the mention documents the influence of Galbraith’s cynical views on modern consumerism on Sahlins’s analysis of pre-historic societies, is not supported by the passage. The reference to Galbraith serves to demonstrate a parallel critique rather than an influence on Sahlins's analysis of pre-historic societies.

Option 3, proposing that the mention is to contrast the materialist nature of contemporary growth paths with the pacifist content ways of living among foragers, is not the primary focus of the passage. While the essay does contrast foraging societies with contemporary economic paths, the emphasis is on a broader critique of consumerism and societal values.

Option 4 stands out as the correct answer, aligning with the passage's indication that Sahlins’s views complemented Galbraith’s criticism of the consumerism and inequality prevalent in contemporary society.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

The passage under consideration does not explicitly criticize Marshall Sahlins's essay but rather reflects on the aspects of the essay that may not align with contemporary perspectives. One option suggests that the criticism lies in the cursory treatment of the effects of racism and colonialism on societies (Option 1). The passage does mention that, when viewed in today's context, not every aspect of the essay has aged well, particularly with regard to the treatment of issues such as colonialism and racism. It suggests that the essay does acknowledge these factors but perhaps does not emphasize them as much as might be expected in the current discourse.

Option 2 posits that the critique lies in the failure to supplement the essay's thesis with robust empirical data. However, the passage actually indicates that the empirical validity of the data is not the primary focus of the essay. It suggests that the essay's point is more about the conceptual challenge it poses to contemporary economic life and bourgeois individualism, using empirical data as a means to serve a philosophical and political project.

Option 3 suggests that the criticism pertains to Sahlins's essay critiquing anthropologists who disparage the choices of foragers in today’s society. This option does not align with the passage, as it emphasizes Sahlins's effort to showcase that foragers make real choices and that societies manifest a fundamental principle of collective self-determination. The essay is more about appreciating the choices of foragers rather than criticizing those who disparage them.

Lastly, Option 4 implies that the criticism revolves around outdated values regarding present-day foragers versus ancient foraging communities. While the passage does mention that not every aspect of the essay has aged well, the criticism is directed more toward the essay's treatment of issues like colonialism and racism rather than outdated values regarding foraging communities.

In summary, the most fitting interpretation of the passage is that the criticism, if any, lies in the essay's treatment of certain societal issues when viewed in today's context.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

The passage presents an economic solution that addresses the conflicting interests of farmers and environmentalists. This solution is related to the establishment and promotion of tourist venues, such as wolf parks, which generate income and jobs in rural areas.

This solution takes into account the interests of farmers who are concerned about the safety of their livestock and their livelihoods due to the resurgence of wolves. On the other hand, it also considers the perspective of environmentalists who view the return of wolves as a positive sign of ecological health. By promoting tourism focused on wolves, the solution aims to create a balance between preserving the wolf population (a goal of the environmentalists) and generating economic benefits for the local community (addressing the concerns of farmers).

Therefore, the correct answer is that the economic solution takes into account the divergent and competing interests of farmers and environmentalists.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
Option A is the correct choice because the author of the passage does not criticize scholars for holding outdated interpretations of past cultural and historical phenomena. Instead, the criticism is aimed at those who reject geographic explanations due to the discipline's historical association with racism and because of a preference for emphasizing culture, history, and individual decisions. The passage argues for the inclusion of geographic factors in analyzing human phenomena and criticizes the tendency to label such explanations as deterministically geographic.

The author's main contention is with the current rejection of geographic factors, not with how scholars interpret past cultural and historical phenomena. Therefore, "their outdated interpretations of past cultural and historical phenomena" is the correct answer as it is the option that the author does not mention as a point of criticism towards scholars who are not geographers.
Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
Option A, "how physical circumstances can dictate human behaviour and cultures," is the answer because the examples of the Inuit and Aboriginal Australians illustrate the direct impact of geographic and environmental conditions on the development of specific cultural traits and survival strategies.

The Inuit, living in the extreme cold north of the Arctic Circle, developed warm fur clothing as a direct response to their frigid environment. This adaptation was necessary for survival and became a cultural hallmark of their society. It was not a matter of choice or cultural preference, but a clear-cut response to the physical demands of their environment.

Similarly, the Aboriginal Australians remained hunter-gatherers because the Australian continent lacked domesticable native animal species and had few domesticable native plant species. The passage suggests that this lack of resources is a biogeographic factor that dictated the course of Aboriginal Australian culture. Their environment did not support the development of agriculture or herding, unlike other continents where such practices became the basis of civilization.

These examples are provided to show that certain cultural traits and behaviors can be directly traced back to the physical and biological factors tied to a geographic location, such as climate and the availability of resources, hence supporting option A.

Correct Answer is A.

Explanation:

● Option 1 is mentioned in the passage as a reason scholars reject geographic explanations.
● Option 2 is also mentioned as a reason, with the author stressing that scholars shouldn't deny the role of culture, history, and individual choices.
● Option 4 is another reason given in the passage.
● However, option 3 is not explicitly mentioned. While the author talks about reflex rejection and skepticism towards geographic explanations, they don't use the language of "dismissal". Instead, they focus on the reasons behind this skepticism, not a blanket dismissal of such explanations.
Therefore, based on the information provided in the passage, option 3 stands out as the only reason not directly advanced by the author for non-geographers disregarding geographic influences.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

The passage indeed discusses the influence of both geographic and non-geographic factors on human phenomena, including culture, history, and individual decisions. It provides examples of how geographic conditions influence human development, like the development of fur clothing among the Inuit or the absence of agriculture in Aboriginal Australia due to biogeographic factors. However, the passage does not assert a majority or comparative quantity, such as "most" human phenomena resulting from culture and individual choice, thereby making it incorrect to infer that the passage claims "most" phenomena result from these factors while "some" have bio-geographic origins. The other options are all directly supported or implied by the passage's content: historical academic studies involving racist interpretations, the specific changes in Australian agriculture after colonization, and the non-role of individual dictat in the development of fur clothing in arctic regions. Therefore, option 2 is the statement that cannot be inferred as it implies a quantification and comparison not explicitly made in the passage.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

The passage posits that Indian Ocean novels provide a distinct literary perspective by focusing on interconnected global south narratives, diverse characters, and a long-standing history of cultural exchange. It contrasts this with mainstream English-language novels, which it claims predominantly center around Western settings and experiences, often overlooking the varied and interconnected histories and geographies found in regions like the Indian Ocean.
Option 4, "most mainstream English-language novels have historically privileged the Christian, white, male experience of travel and adventure," if true, does not weaken the passage's claims but rather reinforces them. This statement aligns with the passage's critique of mainstream English-language fiction as being limited in scope and perspective, predominantly featuring and catering to a specific demographic and cultural background. By highlighting the limited focus of mainstream novels, this option underscores the need for and the value of the diverse and interconnected narratives provided by Indian Ocean novels. The passage aims to demonstrate how Indian Ocean novels expand the literary world by including varied perspectives and histories, thus remapping readers' understanding of the world to include a more comprehensive and interconnected view.
Therefore, the correct statement that would not weaken the passage's claim is option 4. It reinforces the passage's argument that Indian Ocean novels offer a necessary and valuable expansion of perspectives and narratives in literature, contrasting with the more limited and homogeneous focus historically found in mainstream English-language novels. This distinction underlines the significance of Indian Ocean novels in broadening literary horizons and providing a richer, more diverse depiction of the world, particularly highlighting the interconnectedness and cultural richness of the Indian Ocean region.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

To identify the statement that is not true about migration in the Indian Ocean world based on the passage:

Option 1 - The passage focuses on the connections among the coasts of East Africa, the Arab coasts, South and East Asia, which are primarily regions of the global south. It doesn't explicitly mention connections between the global north and the global south in the context of the Indian Ocean world. This might suggest that the statement is an overextension of the actual connections described in the passage, as the primary focus is on the interconnectedness within the global south.

Option 2 - The passage highlights that port cities far apart were often more easily connected to each other than to much closer inland cities due to the ease of travel by sea. This indicates that geographical location, particularly being part of the Indian Ocean network of port cities, was more critical than immediate geographical proximity in determining migration and connection patterns. This statement seems consistent with the passage's details.

Option 3 - While the passage does not use the word "ambivalent" explicitly, it describes the varied nature of interactions and exchanges in the Indian Ocean world, including both positive aspects of cultural exchange and negative aspects such as forced migration and slavery. This suggests a complex and multifaceted nature of migration experiences, which could be interpreted as "ambivalent."

Option 4 - The passage mentions that the novels highlight a largely Islamic space, which suggests the influence of religious history. It also implies that there were extensive trade and cultural exchanges, indicative of commercial histories shaping the interactions and connections in the region. This statement aligns with the passage's description of the region's diverse and rich history, influenced by various cultural, religious, and economic factors.

Based on the passage's content and focus on the interconnectedness of regions primarily within the global south, the statement that is not true about migration in the Indian Ocean world is option 1: "The Indian Ocean world’s migration networks connected the global north with the global south." The passage emphasizes the connections among various regions of the global south and does not explicitly mention the global north's involvement in these migration networks. This makes it the least accurate description of migration in the Indian Ocean world as presented in the passage. The other options are either directly supported or reasonably inferred from the text's discussion on the nature, influences, and characteristics of migration within the Indian Ocean world.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

To identify the odd pair out based on the nature of the relationship between the items in each pair, let's look at what the passage says about each:

Option 1 - The passage mentions that early postcolonial literature was often concerned with national questions and supported anti-colonial nationalism. This pair is consistent with the text's description, indicating a direct and thematic relationship between postcolonial novels and the promotion or exploration of anti-colonial nationalism.

Option 2 - Indian Ocean novels are described as focusing on the interconnectedness of the Indian Ocean world, full of movement, border-crossing, and south-south interconnection. They are depicted as outward-looking, contrasting with the more land-focused and inward-looking nature of early postcolonial novels. This pair is accurate and reflects the passage's depiction of Indian Ocean novels.

Option 3 - The passage acknowledges the complex history of the Indian Ocean world, including the negative aspects of forced migration and slavery. This pair reflects one aspect of the Indian Ocean world's history, but it is not the defining or exclusive characteristic of the region or its literary representation. While accurate, it represents a more specific and less encompassing aspect compared to the broader themes associated with the other pairs.

Option 4 - The passage describes early postcolonial novels as often nation-centric and focused on allegories of the nation. While they might deal with themes of identity and cultural exchange, the primary focus as described in the passage is on national questions and supporting anti-colonial nationalism, not necessarily on border-crossing or movement. Border-crossing is more prominently associated with Indian Ocean novels, which are described as full of movement and interconnection.

Considering the relationship and thematic focus described in the passage, the odd pair out is "4. Postcolonial novels : Border-crossing." This pair does not align as closely with the thematic emphasis of postcolonial novels as described in the text. Postcolonial novels are primarily linked with anti-colonial nationalism and nation-centric narratives, while border-crossing is a characteristic more prominently attributed to Indian Ocean novels. The other pairs more accurately reflect the dominant themes or aspects associated with their respective literary categories as depicted in the passage.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:
The passage discusses "remapping" in the context of shifting the literary and cultural perspective from a Eurocentric or Western-centric view to one that acknowledges and centralizes the interconnected histories, cultures, and narratives of the Indian Ocean world. It aims to highlight the diversity, movement, and rich interactions that characterize the region, challenging conventional literary and historical narratives. Let's evaluate each claim to determine which does not contribute to this "remapping":

Option 1 - This claim perpetuates a Western-centric view of history and culture, suggesting that cosmopolitanism is a Western concept that spread to other parts of the world. This contradicts the passage's intent to center the Indian Ocean world and its long-standing interconnected history. The passage suggests a densely imagined, richly sensory image of a southern cosmopolitan culture, which challenges the idea that the West was the originator and primary disseminator of cosmopolitanism. This statement, therefore, does not contribute to the "remapping" discussed but rather contradicts it.

Option 2 - This claim aligns with the "remapping" discussed in the passage. It reflects the outward-looking nature of Indian Ocean novels, which move beyond nation-centric narratives to embrace and explore the interconnected histories and cultures of the Indian Ocean world. This contributes to the idea of remapping by shifting focus from the national to the regional and interconnected.

Option 3 - This claim contributes to the remapping by challenging the conventional narrative that often centers the global north in discussions of history and globalisation. The passage discusses how historical and archaeological evidence suggests that what we now call globalisation first appeared in the Indian Ocean, emphasizing the role of the global south in early interconnectedness and cultural exchange. This supports the passage's theme of recentering the narrative to include the global south's significant historical role.

Option 4 - This claim also contributes to the "remapping" by acknowledging the diverse participants in early international trade and commerce, including African, Indian, and Arab traders and navigators. It challenges the Eurocentric view of history and trade, aligning with the passage's intent to represent a more inclusive and accurate depiction of the past.

Based on the analysis, the claim that does not contribute to the "remapping" discussed by the passage is "1. cosmopolitanism originated in the West and travelled to the East through globalisation." This claim upholds a Western-centric view of history and cultural exchange, which contradicts the passage's aim to recenter the narrative around the diverse and interconnected histories of the Indian Ocean world and the global south. The other claims all support the idea of remapping by challenging conventional narratives and highlighting the rich, interconnected history and cultural diversity of the regions outside the traditional Western focus.
Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
The sentence "This philosophical cut at one’s core beliefs, values, and way of life is difficult enough." should best fit in the blank at position (2). Let's analyze the paragraph to understand why.

1. The first part of the paragraph introduces the idea that reading philosophy can be disquieting and can challenge one's existing values and beliefs.

2. The sentence in question emphasizes the difficulty of this process, relating specifically to how deeply it can affect one's core beliefs and way of life. This fits well after the initial setup of the challenge posed by philosophical reading and before the mention of the need for new beliefs, values, and ways of living. Thus, it serves as a bridge between the introduction of the problem (the challenge to one's beliefs) and the consequences or requirements that arise from this challenge (new beliefs and values).

3. The third and fourth blanks are less suitable for this sentence. The third blank leads into the idea that philosophical writing can be critically destructive without offering alternatives, which is a different point from the personal difficulty of confronting one's beliefs. The fourth blank is the conclusion, focusing on preparing for the experience of reading philosophy and its potential benefits and challenges, which does not directly align with the content of the sentence in question.

Therefore, position (2) is the most appropriate for the sentence, as it logically and coherently connects the challenge of re-evaluating one's beliefs with the consequent need for adopting new beliefs and values.
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:
Placing the sentence "The discovery helps to explain archeological similarities between the Paleolithic peoples of China, Japan, and the Americas." in position (3) fits well within the context of the paragraph for the following reasons:

1. Before Option (3): The paragraph starts by establishing a genetic link between Native Americans and Japanese people and then discusses the migration from northern coastal China to Japan during the deglaciation period.

2. Option (3): After mentioning the genetic contribution to the Japanese gene pool, especially the indigenous Ainu, the insertion of the sentence here creates a bridge between the genetic findings and their broader implications. It suggests that the genetic discovery is not only significant in terms of understanding the gene pool but also crucial in explaining the archeological connections and similarities between these regions. This connection enriches the understanding of how these populations are not only linked genetically but also share common archeological features.

3. After Option (3): Following this insertion, the paragraph discusses specific archeological evidence, such as similarities in crafting stemmed projectile points. This discussion further supports the inserted sentence, as it provides concrete examples of the archeological similarities mentioned in the sentence.

4. Contextual Coherence: The placement in option (3) allows for a logical flow from genetic findings to cultural and archeological implications. It ties together different types of evidence (genetic and archeological) in a coherent narrative, enhancing the overall understanding of the historical and cultural connections among these populations.

Therefore, the sentence fits most appropriately in position (3), as it effectively links the genetic findings to the archeological similarities, providing a comprehensive explanation of the interconnectedness of these populations across different aspects - genetics, culture, and history.
Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
The correct order for the above statements, emphasizing the concept of 'theory of mind', is 5143 and 2 is the odd one out. Statement 5, with its broad perspective on the human capacity to interpret others' behavior in terms of mental states, serves as an engaging introduction. It is followed by statement 1, which delves into the importance of understanding another person’s mind for aspects like language acquisition, social interaction, and moral judgment, setting a foundational context. Statement 4 then provides a developmental trajectory of this capacity, illustrating its progression from infancy to adulthood. Finally, statement 3 offers an evolutionary perspective, speculating on the origins of this capacity and its development over millions of years. In this arrangement, statement 2, focusing on terminological aspects like 'mentalizing' or 'mindreading', is the odd one out as it diverges from the developmental and evolutionary focus of the other statements.
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:
The topic discussed in the sentences is the complexity and idiosyncrasies in the naming of numbers in English. The correct order that forms a coherent paragraph explaining this concept is 1524, and sentence 3 is the odd one out.

Here's why: Sentence 1 sets the stage by stating that there is no systematic rule in English for naming numbers after ten, introducing the irregularities with examples like "eleven" and "twelve." Sentence 5 continues the theme of irregularities in number naming, emphasizing the unpredictability of terms like "eleven," which cannot be logically deduced (like "one-teen"). Sentence 2 further delves into the peculiarities of English number words, noting the inversion in words like "fourteen," where the digit four actually comes after ten, despite appearing first in the word. Sentence 4 completes the paragraph by contrasting the naming pattern for numbers like "eleven" and "fourteen" with the more systematic approach used for multiples of ten such as "twenty," "thirty," and "forty."

In this context, sentence 3 is the odd one out. It focuses on the learning challenges children face in differentiating between similar-sounding numbers like "fourteen" and "forty," which, while related to the topic, does not directly discuss the naming patterns and irregularities of the English number system like the other sentences do.
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:
The correct sequence for forming a coherent paragraph from these sentences is 4123. This order effectively addresses the intrigue surrounding certain crimes and why they captivate audiences. Sentence 4 opens the discussion by asking why some crimes are perpetually re-examined while others are forgotten. This question sets the stage for an exploration of the factors that make certain crimes more fascinating than others. Sentence 1 follows naturally, delving deeper into this inquiry by asking about the specific "unusual elements" that make a crime particularly attractive to audiences. Sentence 2 then provides a possible answer to the queries raised in sentences 4 and 1, suggesting that extreme depravity or a certain level of mystery could be the captivating factors. Finally, sentence 3 concludes the paragraph by highlighting a specific type of crime that often holds public interest: unsolved or unsolvable cases, which offer a unique appeal compared to "ordinary" murders. This progression from a general question about crime fascination to specific elements that contribute to this interest creates a logical and engaging narrative flow.
Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

The correct sequence for forming a coherent paragraph from these sentences is 4123. This order effectively discusses the topic of biases in AI and their impact compared to human biases. Sentence 4 starts the discussion by contrasting the impact of biased decisions made by humans, which are typically localized, with the advent of AI, where such biases have a broader, more widespread impact. This sets the context for understanding the scale of the problem when AI is involved. Sentence 1 builds on this by specifically pointing out that algorithms hosted on the internet, accessed by many, amplify the impact of biases in AI models, affecting larger groups of people. This highlights the magnitude of the issue in the context of AI's reach. Sentence 2 then shifts the focus from the impact of these biases to their origin. It clarifies that the term "algorithmic bias" might be a misnomer since the bias originates not in the algorithms themselves but in the data they are trained on, underscoring that it's the data that reflects existing patterns and biases. Finally, sentence 3 concludes the paragraph on a somewhat optimistic note, suggesting that despite the widespread impact of AI biases, they are relatively easier to address than human-generated biases. This is because AI biases, being more straightforward to identify, can be corrected more easily than trying to change deep-seated human behaviors and biases learned over generations. This progression from the impact of AI biases to their origin and then to their potential resolution provides a comprehensive overview of the issue in a logical and coherent manner.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

We will denote the 4 departments as F, M, O, B and the 4 professors as P, Q, R, S
Given:
1. Number of faculty members: F(9), M(7), O(5), B(3)
2. 1/4 profs was from dept. O
3. Every faculty member, including the four candidates, voted for the post.
4. In each department, all the faculty members who were not candidates voted for the same candidate.
5. Max 2 candidates from a single dept.
6. A candidate cannot vote for self.
7. Faculty members cannot vote for a candidate from their own dept.

Votes received: P(3), Q(14), R(6), S(1)
Votes among profs: P -> R, Q -> S, R -> Q, S -> P

After subtracting the votes that profs gave among themselves, we have P(2), Q(13), R(5), S(0)
P must have received both the votes from faculties of a single dept according to condition 4 above, and that dept can only be B which has 3 members, 1 of whom must have been a Dean candidate.

R cannot have received the remaining 5 votes from dept O as one member from O is a candidate.
=> R must have received the 5 votes from M.
=> 7-5 = 2 candidates should be from dept M

Now, Q must have received 4 votes from non-candidates of dept O and the remaining 13-4 = 9 votes must be all from members of dept F.
=> There was no Dean candidate from dept F.

A table can be created as shown below.

For Q1, Votes among profs: P -> R, Q -> S, R -> Q, S -> P
According to condition 7 above, (P, R), (P, S), (Q, S), (Q, R) cannot belong to the same dept.
Also, R cannot be a part of a dept that has 2 candidates as that dept will be dept M, and members of M have voted for R.
∴ Option A is correct. The rest of the options are eliminated.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

We will denote the 4 departments as F, M, O, B and the 4 professors as P, Q, R, S
Given:
1. Number of faculty members: F(9), M(7), O(5), B(3)
2. 1/4 profs was from dept. O
3. Every faculty member, including the four candidates, voted for the post.
4. In each department, all the faculty members who were not candidates voted for the same candidate.
5. Max 2 candidates from a single dept.
6. A candidate cannot vote for self.
7. Faculty members cannot vote for a candidate from their own dept.

Votes received: P(3), Q(14), R(6), S(1)
Votes among profs: P -> R, Q -> S, R -> Q, S -> P

After subtracting the votes that profs gave among themselves, we have P(2), Q(13), R(5), S(0)
P must have received both the votes from faculties of a single dept according to condition 4 above, and that dept can only be B which has 3 members, 1 of whom must have been a Dean candidate.

R cannot have received the remaining 5 votes from dept O as one member from O is a candidate.
=> R must have received the 5 votes from M.
=> 7-5 = 2 candidates should be from dept M

Now, Q must have received 4 votes from non-candidates of dept O and the remaining 13-4 = 9 votes must be all from members of dept F.
=> There was no Dean candidate from dept F.

A table can be created as shown below.

If S belongs to dept B, then P and Q must belong to dept M (as R is voted by members of dept M). Remaining, prof R must belong to dept O.
Hence, both the statements are true.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

We will denote the 4 departments as F, M, O, B and the 4 professors as P, Q, R, S
Given:
1. Number of faculty members: F(9), M(7), O(5), B(3)
2. 1/4 profs was from dept. O
3. Every faculty member, including the four candidates, voted for the post.
4. In each department, all the faculty members who were not candidates voted for the same candidate.
5. Max 2 candidates from a single dept.
6. A candidate cannot vote for self.
7. Faculty members cannot vote for a candidate from their own dept.

Votes received: P(3), Q(14), R(6), S(1)
Votes among profs: P -> R, Q -> S, R -> Q, S -> P

After subtracting the votes that profs gave among themselves, we have P(2), Q(13), R(5), S(0)
P must have received both the votes from faculties of a single dept according to condition 4 above, and that dept can only be B which has 3 members, 1 of whom must have been a Dean candidate.

R cannot have received the remaining 5 votes from dept O as one member from O is a candidate.
=> R must have received the 5 votes from M.
=> 7-5 = 2 candidates should be from dept M

Now, Q must have received 4 votes from non-candidates of dept O and the remaining 13-4 = 9 votes must be all from members of dept F.
=> There was no Dean candidate from dept F.

A table can be created as shown below.

From Q1, Prof P and Q belong to dept M
∴ Candidate from dept O can be either R or S

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

We will denote the 4 departments as F, M, O, B and the 4 professors as P, Q, R, S
Given:
1. Number of faculty members: F(9), M(7), O(5), B(3)
2. 1/4 profs was from dept. O
3. Every faculty member, including the four candidates, voted for the post.
4. In each department, all the faculty members who were not candidates voted for the same candidate.
5. Max 2 candidates from a single dept.
6. A candidate cannot vote for self.
7. Faculty members cannot vote for a candidate from their own dept.

Votes received: P(3), Q(14), R(6), S(1)
Votes among profs: P -> R, Q -> S, R -> Q, S -> P

After subtracting the votes that profs gave among themselves, we have P(2), Q(13), R(5), S(0)
P must have received both the votes from faculties of a single dept according to condition 4 above, and that dept can only be B which has 3 members, 1 of whom must have been a Dean candidate.

R cannot have received the remaining 5 votes from dept O as one member from O is a candidate.
=> R must have received the 5 votes from M.
=> 7-5 = 2 candidates should be from dept M

Now, Q must have received 4 votes from non-candidates of dept O and the remaining 13-4 = 9 votes must be all from members of dept F.
=> There was no Dean candidate from dept F.

A table can be created as shown below

From the above table, it is clear that only statement B is true.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation: 

For Ullas:
Mean = 2.2
=> Sum of 5 ratings = 11
Range is 3
=> If minimum rating is 2 only, then 2,2,2,2,5 will give a sum of 13 which is more than 11
∴ 1 and 4 are the min and max ratings
Since 2 is mode, it will appear at least twice
∴ 1,2,2,x,4 => x = 2 since sum is 11
∴ Ullas received ratings 1,2,2,2,4

Vasu: 2,4,4,4,5
Waman: 1,2,4,5,5
Xavier: 1,3,4,5,5
Yusuf: 1,1,3,4,4

Means of the ratings given by
R1 = 3.4, R2 = 2.2, R3 = 3.8, R4 = 2.8, R5 = 3.4

Sum of all ratings given by each restaurant:
R1 = 17, R2 = 11, R3 = 19, R4 = 14, R5 = 17

In the above table, R2 has given 1+5+1 = 7 ratings out of 11. 4 (sum) remaining
The remaining 4 (sum) ratings can be 1,3 or 3,1 or 2,2 divided between Ullas and Vasu
But Ullas has already got a 1 rating from R1 and we know he receives only one 1-rating
Hence, the remaining 4 (sum) ratings are 2,2

Similarly, for R3 11/19 ratings are given. 8 remaining - 3,5 or 5,3 or 4,4
But Ullas hasn’t received 3 or 5 ratings. Hence, 4,4

Similarly, for R1 6/17 are given. 11 remaining -
The new partially filled table is:

Ullas has 2,2 remaining. So, both R4 and R5 will give 2 to him.
Vasu has 4,4 remaining. So, both R1 and R4 will give 4 to him.

Now, R1 cannot have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then Yusuf would have to give a rating of 6 to make the total 17.
R5 also couldn’t have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then R5 would have to give a total of 9 rating to Waman and Yusuf and 4,5 is not possible as all 5s are exhausted for both
∴ R4 must have given a 1 rating to Xavier

R4 needs 7 more ratings, i.e., 2,5 or 3,4. But all 5s are exhausted for Waman and Yusuf. Hence, 4,3 for Waman and Yusuf respectively.

The updated table is as below:

2 rating for Waman by R5
4 rating for Yusuf by both R1 and R5
3 rating by R1 and 4 rating by R5 for Xavier

The final table is as below.

R2 gave a 4 rating to no one.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation: 

For Ullas:
Mean = 2.2
=> Sum of 5 ratings = 11
Range is 3
=> If minimum rating is 2 only, then 2,2,2,2,5 will give a sum of 13 which is more than 11
∴ 1 and 4 are the min and max ratings
Since 2 is mode, it will appear at least twice
∴ 1,2,2,x,4 => x = 2 since sum is 11
∴ Ullas received ratings 1,2,2,2,4

Vasu: 2,4,4,4,5
Waman: 1,2,4,5,5
Xavier: 1,3,4,5,5
Yusuf: 1,1,3,4,4

Means of the ratings given by
R1 = 3.4, R2 = 2.2, R3 = 3.8, R4 = 2.8, R5 = 3.4

Sum of all ratings given by each restaurant:
R1 = 17, R2 = 11, R3 = 19, R4 = 14, R5 = 17

In the above table, R2 has given 1+5+1 = 7 ratings out of 11. 4 (sum) remaining
The remaining 4 (sum) ratings can be 1,3 or 3,1 or 2,2 divided between Ullas and Vasu
But Ullas has already got a 1 rating from R1 and we know he receives only one 1-rating
Hence, the remaining 4 (sum) ratings are 2,2

Similarly, for R3 11/19 ratings are given. 8 remaining - 3,5 or 5,3 or 4,4
But Ullas hasn’t received 3 or 5 ratings. Hence, 4,4

Similarly, for R1 6/17 are given. 11 remaining -
The new partially filled table is:

Ullas has 2,2 remaining. So, both R4 and R5 will give 2 to him.
Vasu has 4,4 remaining. So, both R1 and R4 will give 4 to him.

Now, R1 cannot have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then Yusuf would have to give a rating of 6 to make the total 17.
R5 also couldn’t have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then R5 would have to give a total of 9 rating to Waman and Yusuf and 4,5 is not possible as all 5s are exhausted for both
∴ R4 must have given a 1 rating to Xavier

R4 needs 7 more ratings, i.e., 2,5 or 3,4. But all 5s are exhausted for Waman and Yusuf. Hence, 4,3 for Waman and Yusuf respectively.

The updated table is as below:

2 rating for Waman by R5
4 rating for Yusuf by both R1 and R5
3 rating by R1 and 4 rating by R5 for Xavier

The final table is as below.

R1 gave a rating of 3 to Xavier.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation: 

For Ullas:
Mean = 2.2
=> Sum of 5 ratings = 11
Range is 3
=> If minimum rating is 2 only, then 2,2,2,2,5 will give a sum of 13 which is more than 11
∴ 1 and 4 are the min and max ratings
Since 2 is mode, it will appear at least twice
∴ 1,2,2,x,4 => x = 2 since sum is 11
∴ Ullas received ratings 1,2,2,2,4

Vasu: 2,4,4,4,5
Waman: 1,2,4,5,5
Xavier: 1,3,4,5,5
Yusuf: 1,1,3,4,4

Means of the ratings given by
R1 = 3.4, R2 = 2.2, R3 = 3.8, R4 = 2.8, R5 = 3.4

Sum of all ratings given by each restaurant:
R1 = 17, R2 = 11, R3 = 19, R4 = 14, R5 = 17

In the above table, R2 has given 1+5+1 = 7 ratings out of 11. 4 (sum) remaining
The remaining 4 (sum) ratings can be 1,3 or 3,1 or 2,2 divided between Ullas and Vasu
But Ullas has already got a 1 rating from R1 and we know he receives only one 1-rating
Hence, the remaining 4 (sum) ratings are 2,2

Similarly, for R3 11/19 ratings are given. 8 remaining - 3,5 or 5,3 or 4,4
But Ullas hasn’t received 3 or 5 ratings. Hence, 4,4

Similarly, for R1 6/17 are given. 11 remaining -
The new partially filled table is:

Ullas has 2,2 remaining. So, both R4 and R5 will give 2 to him.
Vasu has 4,4 remaining. So, both R1 and R4 will give 4 to him

Now, R1 cannot have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then Yusuf would have to give a rating of 6 to make the total 17.
R5 also couldn’t have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then R5 would have to give a total of 9 rating to Waman and Yusuf and 4,5 is not possible as all 5s are exhausted for both
∴ R4 must have given a 1 rating to Xavier

R4 needs 7 more ratings, i.e., 2,5 or 3,4. But all 5s are exhausted for Waman and Yusuf. Hence, 4,3 for Waman and Yusuf respectively.

The updated table is as below:

2 rating for Waman by R5
4 rating for Yusuf by both R1 and R5
3 rating by R1 and 4 rating by R5 for Xavier

The final table is as below.

Ratings given by R3 to the five workers = 1,4,4,5,5
Median = 4

Correct Answer is A

Explanation: 

For Ullas:
Mean = 2.2
=> Sum of 5 ratings = 11
Range is 3
=> If minimum rating is 2 only, then 2,2,2,2,5 will give a sum of 13 which is more than 11
∴ 1 and 4 are the min and max ratings
Since 2 is mode, it will appear at least twice
∴ 1,2,2,x,4 => x = 2 since sum is 11
∴ Ullas received ratings 1,2,2,2,4

Vasu: 2,4,4,4,5
Waman: 1,2,4,5,5
Xavier: 1,3,4,5,5
Yusuf: 1,1,3,4,4

Means of the ratings given by
R1 = 3.4, R2 = 2.2, R3 = 3.8, R4 = 2.8, R5 = 3.4

Sum of all ratings given by each restaurant:
R1 = 17, R2 = 11, R3 = 19, R4 = 14, R5 = 17

In the above table, R2 has given 1+5+1 = 7 ratings out of 11. 4 (sum) remaining
The remaining 4 (sum) ratings can be 1,3 or 3,1 or 2,2 divided between Ullas and Vasu
But Ullas has already got a 1 rating from R1 and we know he receives only one 1-rating
Hence, the remaining 4 (sum) ratings are 2,2

Similarly, for R3 11/19 ratings are given. 8 remaining - 3,5 or 5,3 or 4,4
But Ullas hasn’t received 3 or 5 ratings. Hence, 4,4

Similarly, for R1 6/17 are given. 11 remaining -
The new partially filled table is:

Ullas has 2,2 remaining. So, both R4 and R5 will give 2 to him.
Vasu has 4,4 remaining. So, both R1 and R4 will give 4 to him.

Now, R1 cannot have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then Yusuf would have to give a rating of 6 to make the total 17.
R5 also couldn’t have given a rating of 1 to Xavier as then R5 would have to give a total of 9 rating to Waman and Yusuf and 4,5 is not possible as all 5s are exhausted for both
∴ R4 must have given a 1 rating to Xavier

R4 needs 7 more ratings, i.e., 2,5 or 3,4. But all 5s are exhausted for Waman and Yusuf. Hence, 4,3 for Waman and Yusuf respectively.

The updated table is as below:

2 rating for Waman by R5
4 rating for Yusuf by both R1 and R5
3 rating by R1 and 4 rating by R5 for Xavier

The final table is as below.

R4 gave median rating (3) to only one worker (Yusuf)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation: 

Base Price (BP) of vacant house:
W/o parking space = 10 lakhs
With parking space = 12 lakhs
Quoted Price, QP = BP + 5R + 3N

1. Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block
2. E1/E2 QP = 15
3. Each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
4. Only 1 house with parking space in Block YY.

For Block XX, where max QP is 24 lakhs, that is possible only when 10+5(1)+3(3). This can only be B2.
∴ A2, B1, C2 are occupied and B2 is a vacant house as it is available for sale.
Since Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block, A1 and C1 should be vacant as B1 is occupied.

∴ There are 3 vacant houses in block XX

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Base Price (BP) of vacant house:
W/o parking space = 10 lakhs
With parking space = 12 lakhs
Quoted Price, QP = BP + 5R + 3N
1. Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block
2. E1/E2 QP = 15
3. Each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
4. Only 1 house with parking space in Block YY.
For Block XX, where max QP is 24 lakhs, that is possible only when 10+5(1)+3(3). This can only be B2.
∴ A2, B1, C2 are occupied and B2 is a vacant house as it is available for sale.
Since Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block, A1 and C1 should be vacant as B1 is occupied.

If E2’s QP is 15, then it’ll be 10+5(1)+3(0) = 15
=> D2 and F2 both will have to be vacant, BUT this is not possible as it is given that Row 1 in YY will have only 1 occupied house and each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
∴ E1’s QP is 15, and it’ll be 12+5(0)+3(1) = 15
=> One out of D1 or F1 will be vacant
If F1 is vacant F2 will be occupied and F1’s QP = 10(because only one house E1 has parking space in YY)+5(0)+3(1) = 13, which is less than 15.
Hence, F1 cannot be vacant. => D1 will be vacant => D2 will be occupied.
F2 can be occupied or vacant.
The final diagram is shown below

D2 and B1 are definitely occupied. This question was wrongly given in CAT and the answer there was only B1.
Both Options B and C are correct.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation: 

Base Price (BP) of vacant house:
W/o parking space = 10 lakhs
With parking space = 12 lakhs
Quoted Price, QP = BP + 5R + 3N
1. Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block
2. E1/E2 QP = 15
3. Each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
4. Only 1 house with parking space in Block YY.
For Block XX, where max QP is 24 lakhs, that is possible only when 10+5(1)+3(3). This can only be B2.
∴ A2, B1, C2 are occupied and B2 is a vacant house as it is available for sale.
Since Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block, A1 and C1 should be vacant as B1 is occupied.

If E2’s QP is 15, then it’ll be 10+5(1)+3(0) = 15
=> D2 and F2 both will have to be vacant, BUT this is not possible as it is given that Row 1 in YY will have only 1 occupied house and each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
∴ E1’s QP is 15, and it’ll be 12+5(0)+3(1) = 15
=> One out of D1 or F1 will be vacant
If F1 is vacant F2 will be occupied and F1’s QP = 10(because only one house E1 has parking space in YY)+5(0)+3(1) = 13, which is less than 15.
Hence, F1 cannot be vacant. => D1 will be vacant => D2 will be occupied.
F2 can be occupied or vacant.
The final diagram is shown below.

∴ 2 or 3 houses can be vacant in Row 2

Correct Answer is A

Explanation: 

Base Price (BP) of vacant house:
W/o parking space = 10 lakhs
With parking space = 12 lakhs
Quoted Price, QP = BP + 5R + 3N
1. Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block
2. E1/E2 QP = 15
3. Each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
4. Only 1 house with parking space in Block YY.
For Block XX, where max QP is 24 lakhs, that is possible only when 10+5(1)+3(3). This can only be B2.
∴ A2, B1, C2 are occupied and B2 is a vacant house as it is available for sale.
Since Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block, A1 and C1 should be vacant as B1 is occupied.

If E2’s QP is 15, then it’ll be 10+5(1)+3(0) = 15
=> D2 and F2 both will have to be vacant, BUT this is not possible as it is given that Row 1 in YY will have only 1 occupied house and each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
∴ E1’s QP is 15, and it’ll be 12+5(0)+3(1) = 15
=> One out of D1 or F1 will be vacant
If F1 is vacant F2 will be occupied and F1’s QP = 10(because only one house E1 has parking space in YY)+5(0)+3(1) = 13, which is less than 15.
Hence, F1 cannot be vacant. => D1 will be vacant => D2 will be occupied.
F2 can be occupied or vacant.
The final diagram is shown below.

Maximum possible quoted price (in lakhs of Rs.) for a vacant house in Column-E = For E2 when F2 is considered as occupied.
QP = 10+5(1)+3(2) = 21

Correct Answer is D

Explanation: 

Base Price (BP) of vacant house:
W/o parking space = 10 lakhs
With parking space = 12 lakhs
Quoted Price, QP = BP + 5R + 3N
1. Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block
2. E1/E2 QP = 15
3. Each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
4. Only 1 house with parking space in Block YY.
For Block XX, where max QP is 24 lakhs, that is possible only when 10+5(1)+3(3). This can only be B2.
∴ A2, B1, C2 are occupied and B2 is a vacant house as it is available for sale.
Since Row 1 has 2 occupied houses, one in each block, A1 and C1 should be vacant as B1 is occupied.

If E2’s QP is 15, then it’ll be 10+5(1)+3(0) = 15
=> D2 and F2 both will have to be vacant, BUT this is not possible as it is given that Row 1 in YY will have only 1 occupied house and each of Column-D and Column-F has at least one occupied house.
∴ E1’s QP is 15, and it’ll be 12+5(0)+3(1) = 15
=> One out of D1 or F1 will be vacant
If F1 is vacant F2 will be occupied and F1’s QP = 10(because only one house E1 has parking space in YY)+5(0)+3(1) = 13, which is less than 15.
Hence, F1 cannot be vacant. => D1 will be vacant => D2 will be occupied.
F2 can be occupied or vacant.
The final diagram is shown below.

∴ E1 (BP = 12) has a parking space.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Ira, Vijay, Nandini scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order - 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly 6/10 counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
This means that 2 UK counters and 2 Others counters are not considered in these 6 counters (4 US and 2 Schengen counters are considered in these 6 counters as they were processing or were ready for the next process start at 9:20 AM).
=> The 2 Others counters would have finished processing within 5 minutes of slot start time.
Total Other category applications = 2 x 20 = 40
Each can take a maximum of 5 mins.
So 40 x 5 = 200 mins max.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation: 

20 slots of 15-min each from 9 AM to 2 PM
10 applications scheduled in each slot
Counters, Processing time (in mins): US (4, 10), UK (2, 10), Schengen (2, _), Others (2, _)

Ira, Vijay, Nandini scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order - 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly 6/10 counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman scheduled in 9:30 am slot in Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

Total slots/applications = 20 x 10 = 200
US applicants = 50% = 100 i.e., 5/10 applications in a slot were US applications
Min 3 people (Ira, Vijay, Nandini) scheduled for Schengen visa in each slot
And min 2 people (Mahira, Osman) scheduled for Other visas in each slot
This minimum is the actual number itself as 5+3+2 = 10
∴ 5 US, 3 Schengen, 2 Others, 0 UK applications scheduled per slot

3 Schengen applicants must have come at 9 AM, 3 at 9:15 (Ira, Vijay, Nandini who actually came 5 mins late at 9:20)
First person who came at 9 AM went to Counter 1 of Schengen, 2nd person at Counter 2, 3rd at Counter 1…Vijay went to Counter 1 at 9:25 as he was the 5th to come.
Vijay came at 9:20 but was called at 9:25 i.e., 2 people before Vijay at counter 1 took 25 mins to finish the process, i.e., per Schengen visa processing time is 25/2 = 12.5 mins

For Schengen Counters, we have the following table:

∴ Nandini’s process got over at 9:45 AM

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
As we saw in Q17, Others’ process starts as soon as the slot starts. Therefore, Mahira who was scheduled at 9:30 AM would start at that time itself and Nandini would start at 9:32:30 (as found out in Q18)
∴ . ‘The application process of Mahira started after Nandini’s’ is false

The correct Answer is C

Explanation:

5 US applications per slot, 4 counters, processing time 10 mins, slot is of 15 mins

When 5 US applicants enter, 4 occupy 4 counters, and after 10 mins, i.e., 5 mins before the slot ends, the counters get free for the 5th applicant to go to. Hence, he will take 5 mins extra after the slot ends to get done with his process.

This pattern will extend to the last slot at 1:45 PM which will extend till 5 mins past the slot length i.e., till 2:05 PM.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Correct answer is A

Explanation:

168 is a factor of 1134n
168 = 23 x 3 x 7
1134 = 2 x 34 x 7
nmin = 3 (matching power of 2)
1134n is a factor of 168m
For power of 2, 3m ≥ n
For power of 3, m ≥ 4n
For power of 7, m ≥ n
=> 3m ≥ 3; m ≥ 12; m ≥ 3
Combining the 3, we get mmin = 12
∴ m + n = 12 + 3 = 15

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

√(5x + 9) + √(5x - 9) = 6 + 3√2 = √36 + √18
Comparing RHS and LHS,
5x + 9 = 36 and 5x - 9 = 18
Adding both, we get
10x = 54
∴ √(10x + 9) = 3√7

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

x2 + (x - 2y - 1)2 = - 4y(x + y)
=> x2 + 4y(x + y) + (x - 2y - 1)2 = 0
=> (x + 2y)2 + (x - 2y - 1)2 = 0
Sum of two square terms is 0 only when both are 0
=> x - 2y - 1 = 0
=> x - 2y = 1

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

x3 + (2r + 1)x2 + (4r - 1)x + 2 = 0
-2 is a root. Let the other two roots be α & β
For a cubic equation, ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0,
Sum of roots = -b/a, Product of roots = -d/a
For the given equation, α + β - 2 = -(2r + 1) and -2αβ = -2
=> α + β = -2r + 1 and αβ = 1
=> 1/β + β = -(2r - 1)
=> β2 + (2r - 1)β + 1 = 0
Since β is real, D ≥ 0
=> (2r - 1)2 - 4 ≥ 0
So, 2r - 1 ≥ 2 or 2r - 1 ≤ -2
Since, we need least possible non-negative integer value of r, we will consider 2r - 1 ≥ 2
=> r ≥ 3/2
∴ min possible non-negative integer value of r = 2

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
α & β are the roots of 2x2 - 6x + k = 0
Sum of roots = α + β = 3, and product of roots = αβ = k/2
α + β and αβ are the roots of x2 + px + p = 0 i.e., 3 and k/2 are the roots of this equation.
=> 32 + 3p + p = 0
=> p = -9/4
=> 4x2 - 9x - 9 = 0
x = [9 ± √(81 + 144)]/8 = 3, -¾
So, k/2 = -3/4
Hence, 8(k - p) = 8(-3/2 + 9/4) = 6

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

2|x|(x2 + 1) = 5x2
We know |x|2 = x2
Let |x| = t
So, 2t(t2 + 1) = 5t2
=> 2t3 - 5t2 + 2t = 0
=> 2t2 - 5t + 2 = 0 (one root becomes t = x = 0)
=> 2t2 - 4t - t + 2 = 0
=> 2t(t - 2) - 1(t - 2) = 0
=> t = |x| = 2, ½
The other two integer roots are x = ±2
∴ total 3 roots -> 0, 2, -2

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

This can be solved using the options.
26862 - x should be a palindrome, where x is the distance traveled by Brishti in 8 hours at some average speed.
Op A: If she traveled at 100 kmph for 8 hours, x = 800
26862 - 800 = 26062 = palindrome
Op B: 26862 - (8*90) = 26142 ≠ palindrome
Op C: 26862 - (8*110) = 25982 ≠ palindrome
Op D: 26862 - (8*80) = 26222 ≠ palindrome

∴ option A is correct.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Let each girl have g marks and each boy have b marks
=> (4g + 6b)/(4 + 6) = 24
=> 2g + 3b = 120
b ≤ g ≤ 2b
Checking for extremes,
if g = b, then b = 24
If g = 2b, then b = 120/7
We have to find the number of distinct possible values of 2g + 6b
if g = b, then 2g + 6b = 8b = 192
f g = 2b, then 2g + 6b = 10b = 1200/7 = 171.429 = 172 (integral)
Hence, 172 to 192 = 21 possible values of 2g + 6b

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

SP of A and B are the same.
A is sold at 20% profit and B at 10% loss
Let SP be 120 each
CP of A = 100, CP of B = 120/0.9
New SP of B = 1.1 x 120/0.9 = 146.667
This will also be the SP of A
∴ Profit made on A = 46.667% = ~47%

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Concept: For every minute passed, the minute hand gains 5.5° over the hour hand.
At 8 PM, the major angle between hour and minute hand was 240°
At, 8:48 PM i.e., 48 mins past, minute hand has gained 5.5 x 48 = 264° over the hour hand i.e., the minor angle between hour and minute hand is 264°-240° = 24°
To gain 50% more i.e., 12° more, 12/5.5 = 24/11 minutes are needed.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Let the coffee jar have x amount of coffee
y amount of coffee is removed and replaced with cocoa powder
{(x - y)/x}2 = 16/25
=> (x-y)/x = 4/5
i.e., 1: 4 ratio of cocoa and coffee in P
Let these ratios be the absolute values of cocoa and coffee in P
Next, again 1 unit is removed from P. It will have 0.2 unit of cocoa
Cocoa in mix Q = (1 - 0.2) + 1 = 1.8
Ratio of cocoa in mixture P to that in mixture Q = 1: 1.8 = 5: 9

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

S: G: M = 5: 6: 7
Let these be the absolute values
In 1st year, S: G: M = 1.2*5: 1.25*6: 1.2*7 = 6: 7.5: 8.4
In 2nd year, S: M = 1.4*6: x: 1.25*8.4 = 8.4: x: 10.5
x = (8.4 + 10.5)/2 = 9.45
∴ Salary hike of G in 2nd year = (9.45 - 7.5)/7.5 x 100 = 26%

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Let A and K do a and b units of work per day.
So, S will do 2ab/(a+b) units of work per day
K takes twice the time taken by A to do the same job i.e., a = 2b
So, the amount of work done by A, S and K are 2b, 4b/3, b
A and S work for 4 days and 9 days, respectively, K needs to work for 16 days to finish the remaining job.
=> 4*2b + 9*4b/3 + 16*b = Total work = 36b
∴ S will take 36b/(4b/3) = 27 days to complete the work alone.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Let Sunil’s initial investment be Rs. x
Anil: 22000, 6 years, 4% compounded half yearly
Sunil: x, 5 years, 4% compounded half yearly, 1 year @ 10% SI

Anil’s amount = 22000(1 + 0.04/2)2*6
Sunil’s amount = 1.1(x)(1 + 0.04/2)2*5
Both these amounts are equal
=> 22000(1 + 0.04/2)2*6 = 1.1(x)(1 + 0.04/2)2*5
=> x = 20000(1 + 0.04/2)2
=> x = 20808

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Time taken to meet = √product of times taken by the two to reach their respective ends after the meeting
Time taken to meet = √6*24 = 12 hours
Arvind takes a total of 6+12 = 18 hours traveling at a speed of 54 kmph
Distance between A and B = 18*54 = 972 kms

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
Equation of circle is ax2 + by2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
Centre = (-g, -f), Radius = √(g2 + f2 - c)
Here, ax2 + by2 + 4x - 6y - 3 = 0
Centre = (-2, 3), Radius = √(4 + 9 + 3) = 4

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation: 

Let the areas of the 3 smaller triangles be a, b, c as indicated in the diagram
Given, areas of ∆ABP, ∆ABQ and ∆ABC are in arithmetic progression
=> 2(a + b) = a + (a + b + c)
=> b = c
Also, area of ∆ABC = 1.5(area of ∆ABP)
=> (a + b + c) = (3/2)(a)
=> a = 2(b + c)
=> a = 4b
∴ a: b: c = 4b: b: b = 4: 1: 1
=> PQ = 12/6 = 2 cm

Correct Answer is B

Explanation: 

Explanation:
Natural nos. till 1000 with non-repeating digits:
1-digit nos.: 9
2-digit nos.: 9*9 = 81
3-digit nos.: = 9*9*8 = 648
Total nos. = 9+81+648 = 738

Correct Answer is C

Explanation: 

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Day 1 = 2
Day 2 = 2(2) + 3 = 7
Day 3 = 2(7) + 3 = 17
Day 4 = 2(17) + 3 = 37
Day 5 = …… = 77
Day 6 = …… = 157
Day 7 = …… = 317
Now + 3 won’t make much of a difference as double of 317 is itself big enough.
2a x 317 ≥ 1000000
a = 12
So, n = 12 days after Day 7 = 19th day

Correct Answer is D