CAT 2021 Slot 3 Question Paper with Solutions

VARC

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Today we can hardly conceive of ourselves without an unconscious. Yet between 1700 and 1900, this notion developed as a genuinely original thought. The “unconscious” burst the shell of conventional language, coined as it had been to embody the fleeting ideas and the shifting conceptions of several generations until, finally, it became fixed and defined in specialized terms within the realm of medical psychology and Freudian psychoanalysis.

The vocabulary concerning the soul and the mind increased enormously in the course of the nineteenth century. The enrichments of literary and intellectual language led to an altered understanding of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords. At the same time, once coined, powerful new ideas attracted to themselves a whole host of seemingly unrelated issues, practices, and experiences, creating a peculiar network of preoccupations that as a group had not existed before. The drawn-out attempt to approach and define the unconscious brought together the spiritualist and the psychical researcher of borderline phenomena (such as apparitions, spectral illusions, haunted houses, mediums, trance, automatic writing); the psychiatrist or alienist probing the nature of mental disease, of abnormal ideation, hallucination, delirium, melancholia, mania; the surgeon performing operations with the aid of hypnotism; the magnetizer claiming to correct the disequilibrium in the universal flow of magnetic fluids but who soon came to be regarded as a clever manipulator of the imagination; the physiologist and the physician who puzzled over sleep, dreams, sleepwalking, anaesthesia, the influence of the mind on the body in health and disease; the neurologist concerned with the functions of the brain and the physiological basis of mental life; the philosopher interested in the will, the emotions, consciousness, knowledge, imagination and the creative genius; and, last but not least, the psychologist.

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Significantly, most if not all of these practices (for example, hypnotism in surgery or psychological magnetism) originated in the waning years of the eighteenth century and during the early decades of the nineteenth century, as did some of the disciplines (such as psychology and psychical research). The majority of topics too were either new or assumed hitherto unknown colors. Thus, before 1790, few if any spoke, in medical terms, of the affinity between creative genius and the hallucinations of the insane.

Striving vaguely and independently to give expression to a latent conception, various lines of thought can be brought together by some novel term. The new concept then serves as a kind of resting place or stocktaking in the development of ideas, giving satisfaction and a stimulus for further discussion or speculation. Thus, the massive introduction of the term unconscious by Hartmann in 1869 appeared to focalize many stray thoughts, affording a temporary feeling that a crucial step had been taken forward, a comprehensive knowledge gained, a knowledge that required only further elaboration, explication, and unfolding in order to bring in a bounty of higher understanding. Ultimately, Hartmann’s attempt at defining the unconscious proved fruitless because he extended its reach into every realm of organic and inorganic, spiritual, intellectual, and instinctive existence, severely diluting the precision and compromising the impact of the concept.

 

Q1. Which one of the following statements best describes what the passage is about?

1. The identification of the unconscious as an object of psychical
2. The growing vocabulary of the soul and the mind, as diverse
3. The collating of diverse ideas under the single term:
4. The discovery of the unconscious as a part of the human

Sol: The main idea of a passage in the majority of the cases can be found out from the first and last paragraph.

Read the following lines –

“The ‘unconscious’ burst the shell of conventional language, coined as it had been to embody the fleeting ideas and the shifting conceptions of several generations until, finally, it became fixed and defined in specialized terms within the realm of medical psychology and Freudian psychoanalysis.” “The new concept then serves as a kind of resting place or stocktaking in the development of ideas, giving satisfaction and a stimulus for further discussion or speculation. Thus, the massive introduction of the term unconscious by Hartmann in 1869 appeared to focalize many stray thoughts..”

These indicate that option C is the correct answer.

 

Q2. Which one of the following sets of words is closest to mapping the main arguments of the passage?

1. Literary language; Unconscious;
2. Imagination; Magnetism;
3. Language; Unconscious;
4. Unconscious; Latent conception;

Sol: Let’s use option elimination technique.

‘Unconscious’ is certainly a very important term in the context of this passage. So, option B is eliminated.

‘Dreams’ has been mentioned only once and it’s scope is very narrow, So D is also eliminated. Between A and C, we’d choose ‘language’ over ‘literary language’ because ‘literary and intellectual language’ has been mentioned in the passage, not just ‘literary language’. Also, psychoanalysis is a broader term compared to insanity which limits the scope.

So, option C is correct.

Q3. “The enrichments of literary and intellectual language led to an altered understanding of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords.” Which one of the following interpretations of this sentence would be closest in meaning to the original?

1. The meanings of time-honored expressions were changed by innovations in literary and intellectual
2. Literary and intellectual language was altered by time-honored expressions and traditional
3. Time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords were enriched by literary and intellectual
4. All of the options listed

Sol: Option B – Literary and intellectual language was not altered. Due to the enrichment of literary and intellectual language, the UNDERSTANDING of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords was altered.

Option C – the MEANING of time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords was enriched. Option A is correct.

 

Q4. All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, EXCEPT:

1. Eighteenth century thinkers were the first to perceive a connection between creative genius and insanity.
2. New conceptions in the nineteenth century could provide new knowledge because of the establishment of fields such as
3. Without the linguistic developments of the nineteenth century, the growth of understanding of the soul and the mind may not have
4. Unrelated practices began to be treated as related to each other, as knowledge of the mind grew in the nineteenth century

Sol: We cannot infer option B from the passage as it does not mention anaesthesiology. It only says that with the introduction of the term ‘unconscious’, it seemed that this new knowledge could, with further elaboration and exploring, provide a bounty of higher understanding.

All the remaining options can be inferred.

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

 Keeping time accurately comes with a price. The maximum accuracy of a clock is directly related to how much disorder, or entropy, it creates every time it ticks. Natalia Ares at the University of Oxford and her colleagues made this discovery using a tiny clock with an accuracy that can be controlled. The clock consists of a 50-nanometre-thick membrane of silicon nitride, vibrated by an electric current. Each time the membrane moved up and down once and then returned to its original position, the researchers counted a tick, and the regularity of the spacing between the ticks represented the accuracy of the clock. The researchers found that as they increased the clock’s accuracy, the heat produced in the system grew, increasing the entropy of its surroundings by jostling nearby particles. “If a clock is more accurate, you are paying for it somehow,” says Ares. In this case, you pay for it by pouring more ordered energy into the clock, which is then converted into entropy. “By measuring time, we are increasing the entropy of the universe,” says Ares. The more entropy there is in the universe, the closer it may be to its eventual demise. “Maybe we should stop measuring time,” says Ares. The scale of the additional entropy is so small, though, that there is no need to worry about its effects, she says

The increase in entropy in timekeeping may be related to the “arrow of time”, says Marcus Huber at the Austrian Academy of Sciences in Vienna, who was part of the research team. It has been suggested that the reason that time only flows forward, not in reverse, is that the total amount of entropy in the universe is constantly increasing, creating disorder that cannot be put in order again.

The relationship that the researchers found is a limit on the accuracy of a clock, so it doesn’t mean that a clock that creates the most possible entropy would be maximally accurate – hence a large, inefficient grandfather clock isn’t more precise than an atomic clock. “It’s a bit like fuel use in a car. Just because I’m using more fuel doesn’t mean that I’m going faster or further,” says Huber.

When the researchers compared their results with theoretical models developed for clocks that rely on quantum effects, they were surprised to find that the relationship between accuracy and entropy seemed to be the same for both. We can’t be sure yet that these results are actually universal, though, because there are many types of clocks for which the relationship between accuracy and entropy haven’t been tested. “It’s still unclear how this principle plays out in real devices such as atomic clocks, which push the ultimate quantum limits of accuracy,” says Mark Mitchison at Trinity College Dublin in Ireland. Understanding this relationship could be helpful for designing clocks in the future, particularly those used in quantum computers and other devices where both accuracy and temperature are crucial, says Ares. This finding could also help us understand more generally how the quantum world and the classical world are similar and different in terms of thermodynamics and the passage of time.

Q5. None of the following statements can be inferred from the passage EXCEPT that:

1. the arrow of time has not yet been tested for atomic
2. quantum computers are likely to produce more heat and, hence, more entropy, because of the emphasis on their clocks’
3. grandfather clocks are likely to produce less heat and, hence, less entropy, because they are not as
4. a clock with a 50-nanometre-thick membrane of silicon nitride has been made to vibrate, producing electric currents.

Sol: The gist of the passage is that higher the clock accuracy, higher would be the entropy. But the vice versa need not always be true. For eg. the grandfather clock produces high entropy but isn’t very accurate. This relationship between accuracy and entropy was same for clocks that rely on quantum effects.

Hence, option B can be inferred.

Q6. Which one of the following sets of words and phrases serves best as keywords of the passage?

1. Electric current; Heat; Quantum
2. Silicon Nitride; Energy; Grandfather
3. Measuring Time; Accuracy;
4. Membrane; Arrow of time;

Sol: The gist of the passage is that higher the clock accuracy, higher would be the entropy. But the vice versa need not always be true. For eg. the grandfather clock produces high entropy but isn’t very accurate. This relationship between accuracy and entropy was same for clocks that rely on quantum effects.

So, accuracy and entropy are very important keywords and they are present only in option C.

 

Q7. “It’s a bit like fuel use in a car. Just because I’m using more fuel doesn’t mean that I’m going faster or further . . .” What is the purpose of this example?

1. If you go faster in a car, you will tend to consume more fuel, but the converse is not necessarily In the same way, increased entropy does not necessarily mean greater accuracy of a clock.
2. The further you go in a car, the more fuel you use. In the same way, the faster you go in a car, the less time you
3. If you measure the speed of a car with a grandfather clock, the result will be different than if you measured it with an atomic clock.
4. The further and faster you go in a car, the greater the amount of fuel you will use, the greater the amount of heat produced and, hence, the greater the

Sol: A car uses about the same amount of fuel when going at 20 kmph and 80 kmph. So, if fuel used is more, it doesn’t imply that car is going faster.

The gist of the passage is that higher the clock accuracy, higher would be the entropy. But the vice versa need not always be true. For eg. the grandfather clock produces high entropy but isn’t very accurate.

Hence, option A follows.

 

Q8. The author makes all of the following arguments in the passage, EXCEPT that:

1. The relationship between accuracy and entropy may not apply to all
2. Researchers found that the heat produced in a system is the price paid for increased accuracy of
3. There is no difference in accuracy between an inefficient grandfather clock and an atomic
4. In designing clocks for quantum computers, both precision and heat have to be taken into

Sol: Again, going by the example of the grandfather clock, option B can be dismissed.

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. 

Starting in 1957, Noam Chomsky proclaimed a new doctrine: Language, that most human of all attributes, was innate. The grammatical faculty was built into the infant brain, and your average 3- year-old was not a mere apprentice in the great enterprise of absorbing English from his or her parents, but a “linguistic genius.” Since this message was couched in terms of Chomskyan theoretical linguistics, in discourse so opaque that it was nearly incomprehensible even to some scholars, many people did not hear it. Now, in a brilliant, witty and altogether satisfying book, Mr. Chomsky’s colleague Steven Pinker . . . has brought Mr. Chomsky’s findings to every man. In “The Language Instinct” he has gathered persuasive data from such diverse fields as cognitive neuroscience, developmental psychology and speech therapy to make his points, and when he disagrees with Mr. Chomsky he tells you so. For Mr. Chomsky and Mr. Pinker, somewhere in the human brain there is a complex set of neural circuits that have been programmed with “super-rules” (making up what Mr. Chomsky calls “universal grammar”), and that these rules are unconscious and instinctive. A half-century ago, this would have been pooh-poohed as a “black box” theory, since one could not actually pinpoint this grammatical faculty in a specific part of the brain, or describe its functioning. But now things are different. Neurosurgeons have now found that this “black box” is situated in and around Broca’s area, on the left side of the forebrain.

Unlike Mr. Chomsky, Mr. Pinker firmly places the wiring of the brain for language within the framework of Darwinian natural selection and evolution. He effectively disposes of all claims that intelligent nonhuman primates like chimps have any abilities to learn and use language. It is not that chimps lack the vocal apparatus to speak; it is just that their brains are unable to produce or use grammar. On the other hand, the “language instinct,” when it first appeared among our most distant hominid ancestors, must have given them a selective reproductive advantage over their competitors (including the ancestral chimps).

So according to Mr. Pinker, the roots of language must be in the genes, but there cannot be a “grammar gene” any more than there can be a gene for the heart or any other complex body structure. This proposition will undoubtedly raise the hackles of some behavioral psychologists and anthropologists, for it apparently contradicts the liberal idea that human behavior may be changed for the better by improvements in culture and environment, and it might seem to invite the twin bugaboos of biological determinism and racism. Yet Mr. Pinker stresses one point that should allay such fears. Even though there are 4,000 to 6,000 languages today, they are all sufficiently alike to be considered one language by an extraterrestrial observer. In other words, most of the diversity of the world’s cultures, so beloved to anthropologists, is superficial and minor compared to the similarities. Racial differences are literally only “skin deep.” The fundamental unity of humanity is the theme of Mr.

Chomsky’s universal grammar, and of this exciting book.

 

Q9. On the basis of the information in the passage, Pinker and Chomsky may disagree with each other on which one of the following points?

1. The inborn language acquisition skills of
2. The language
3. The possibility of a universal
4. The Darwinian explanatory paradigm for

Sol: Very easy and direct question.

Answer is in the 1st line of the 3rd paragraph – Unlike Mr. Chomsky, Mr. Pinker firmly places the wiring of the brain for language within the framework of Darwinian natural selection and evolution.

 

Q10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about the language instinct EXCEPT that:

1. developments in neuroscience have increased its
2. all intelligent primates are gifted with
3. it confers an evolutionary reproductive
4. not all intelligent primates are gifted with

Sol: Again, a sitter question. Read the 2nd line of the 3rd paragraph – He effectively disposes of all claims that intelligent nonhuman primates like chimps have any abilities to learn and use language. Hence, option B is the answer.

 

Q11. From the passage, it can be inferred that all of the following are true about Pinker’s book, “The Language Instinct”, EXCEPT that Pinker:

1. draws extensively from Chomsky’s
2. writes in a different style from
3. draws from behavioural psychology
4. disagrees with Chomsky on certain

Sol: In the last paragraph, the passage states that Pinker’s proposition that the roots of language must be in the genes will ‘undoubtedly raise the hackles of some behavioral psychologists and anthropologists, for it apparently contradicts the liberal idea that human behavior may be changed for the better by improvements in culture and environment’. So, Pinker’s position is at variance with that of behavioural psychologists. Hence, C cannot be inferred.

According to the passage, Pinker’s book ‘has brought Mr. Chomsky’s findings to every man’. So, option A is true.

According to the passage, while Chomsky’s book was full of ‘theoretical linguistics, in discourse so opaque that it was nearly incomprehensible even to some scholars’, Pinker’s book is ‘brilliant, witty and altogether satisfying’. So, option B is also true.

 

Q12. Which one of the following statements best summarises the author’s position about Pinker’s book?

1. Culture and environment play a key role in shaping our acquisition of
2. The universality of the “language instinct” counters claims that Pinker’s book is
3. Anatomical developments like the voice box play a key role in determining language acquisition
4. The evolutionary and deterministic framework of Pinker’s book makes it

Sol: “.. and it might seem to invite the twin bugaboos of biological determinism and racism. Yet Mr.

Pinker stresses one point that should allay such fears.. Racial differences are literally only “skin

deep.” The fundamental unity of humanity is the theme of Mr. Chomsky’s universal grammar, and of this exciting book.”

Option B is the right choice.

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question. 

Back in the early 2000s, an awesome thing happened in the New X-Men comics. Our mutant heroes had been battling giant robots called Sentinels for years, but suddenly these mechanical overlords spawned a new threat: Nano-Sentinels! Not content to rule Earth with their metal fists, these tiny robots invaded our bodies at the microscopic level. Infected humans were slowly converted into machines, cell by cell. Now, a new wave of extremely odd robots is making at least part of the Nano-Sentinels story come true. Using exotic fabrication materials like squishy hydrogels and elastic polymers, researchers are making autonomous devices that are often tiny and that could turn out to be more powerful than an army of Terminators. Some are 1-centimetre blobs that can skate over water. Others are flat sheets that can roll themselves into tubes, or matchstick-sized plastic coils that act as powerful muscles. No, they won’t be invading our bodies and turning us into Sentinels – which I personally find a little disappointing – but some of them could one day swim through our bloodstream to heal us. They could also clean up pollutants in water or fold themselves into different kinds of vehicles for us to drive.

Unlike a traditional robot, which is made of mechanical parts, these new kinds of robots are made from molecular parts. The principle is the same: both are devices that can move around and do things independently. But a robot made from smart materials might be nothing more than a pink drop of hydrogel. Instead of gears and wires, it’s assembled from two kinds of molecules – some that love water and some that avoid it – which interact to allow the bot to skate on top of a pond.

Sometimes these materials are used to enhance more conventional robots. One team of researchers, for example, has developed a different kind of hydrogel that becomes sticky when exposed to a low- voltage zap of electricity and then stops being sticky when the electricity is switched off. This putty-like gel can be pasted right onto the feet or wheels of a robot. When the robot wants to climb a sheer wall or scoot across the ceiling, it can activate its sticky feet with a few volts. Once it is back on a flat surface again, the robot turns off the adhesive like a light switch.

Robots that are wholly or partly made of gloop aren’t the future that I was promised in science fiction. But it’s definitely the future I want. I’m especially keen on the nanometre-scale “soft robots” that could one day swim through our bodies. Metin Sitti, a director at the Max Planck Institute for Intelligent Systems in Germany, worked with colleagues to prototype these tiny, synthetic beasts using various stretchy materials, such as simple rubber, and seeding them with magnetic microparticles. They are assembled into a finished shape by applying magnetic fields. The results look like flowers or geometric shapes made from Tinkertoy ball and stick modelling kits. They’re guided through tubes of fluid using magnets, and can even stop and cling to the sides of a tube.

 

Q13. Which one of the following statements best captures the sense of the first paragraph?

1. Tiny sentinels called X-Men infected people, turning them into mutant robot
2. The X-Men were mutant heroes who now had to battle tiny robots called Nano-Sentinels.
3. People who were infected by Nano-Sentinel robots became mutants who were called X-Men.
4. None of the options listed

Sol: The first paragraph says about the New X-Men that ‘Our mutant heroes had been battling giant robots called Sentinels for years, but suddenly these mechanical overlords spawned a new threat: Nano-Sentinels!’

So, option B is true.

 

Q14. Which one of the following statements best summarises the central point of the passage?

1. Robots will use nano-robots on their feet and wheels to climb walls or move on ceilings.
2. The field of robotics is likely to be feature more and more in comics like the New X-Men.
3. Once the stuff of science fiction, nano-robots now feature in cutting-edge scientific
4. Nano-robots made from molecules that react to water have become increasingly

Sol: The central idea of the passage is that nano-robots, which were once part of science fiction and comics, have now come true, with scientific researchers making such autonomous devices from molecular parts. Hence, option C is the correct choice.

The other options state some ideas from the passage, but not the central idea.

 

Q15. Which one of the following statements, if true, would be the most direct extension of the arguments in the passage?

1. 1-centimetre blobs of gel that have nano-robots in them will be used to send
2. Sentinel robots will be used in warfare to cause large-scale destructive mutations amongst
3. In the future, robots will be used to search and destroy diseases even in the deepest recesses of the human body
4. X-Men may be created by injecting people with mutant nano-gels that will respond to the brain’s magnetic field.

Sol: Option C is the direct extension of ‘some of them could one day swim through our bloodstream to heal us. They could also clean up pollutants in water or fold themselves into different kinds of vehicles for us to drive.’

 

Q16. Which one of the following scenarios, if false, could be seen as supporting the passage?

1. There are two kinds of molecules used to make some nano-robots: one that reacts positively to water and the other negatively.
2. Robots made from smart materials are likely to become part of our everyday lives in the
3. Some hydrogels turn sticky when an electric current is passed through them; this potentially has very useful
4. Nano-Sentinel-like robots are likely to be used to inject people to convert them into robots, cell by cell.

Sol: In the passage it’s stated – ‘No, they won’t be invading our bodies and turning us into Sentinels’. Option D says the opposite of this. So, if it were false, it’d be supporting the passage.

 

Q17. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer:

1. A typical example is Wikipedia, where the overwhelming majority of contributors are male and so the available content is skewed to reflect their interests.
2. Without diversity of thought and representation, society is left with a distorted picture of future options, which are likely to result in augmenting existing
3. Gross gender inequality in the technology sector is problematic, not only for the industry-wide marginalisation of women, but because technology designs embody the values of their
4. While redressing unequal representation in the workplace is a step in the right direction, broader social change is needed to address the structural inequalities embedded within the current organisation of work and
5. If technology merely reflects the perspectives of the male stereotype, then new technologies are unlikely to accommodate the diverse social contexts within which they operate.

Sol: 3512 makes a logical sequence.

Sentence 4 is about structural inequalities in the current organisation of work and employment whereas all other sentences are about gender inequality in the technology sector and its impact on society.

 

Q18. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer:

1. They often include a foundation course on navigating capitalism with Chinese characteristics and have replaced typical cases from US corporates with a focus on how Western theories apply to China’s buzzing local
2. The best Chinese business schools look like their Western rivals but are now growing distinct in terms of what they teach and the career boost they
3. Western schools have enhanced their offerings with double degrees, popular with domestic and overseas students alike—and boosted the prestige of their Chinese partners.
4. For students, a big draw is the chance to rub shoulders with captains of China’s private
5. Their business courses now largely cater to the growing demand from China Inc which has become more global, richer and ready to recruit from this sinocentric student

Sol: 2514 forms a logical paragraph.

They all relate to Chinese business schools and the courses they offer whereas sentence 3 relates to Western schools and their offerings. So, 3 is the odd one out.

 

Q19. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

People view idleness as a sin and industriousness as a virtue, and in the process have developed an unsatisfactory relationship with their jobs. Work has become a way for them to keep busy, even though many find their work meaningless. In their need for activity people undertake what was once considered work (fishing, gardening) as hobbies. The opposing view is that hard work has made us prosperous and improved our levels of health and education. It has also brought innovation and labour and time-saving devices, which have lessened life’s drudgery.

1. Hard work has overtaken all aspects of our lives and has enabled economic prosperity, but it is important that people reserve their leisure time for some
2. Despite some detractors, hard work is essential in today’s world to enable economic progress, for education and health and to propel innovations that make life
3. Some believe that hard work has been glorified to the extent that it has become meaningless, and led to greater idleness, but it has also had enormous positive impacts on everyday
4. While the idealisation of hard work has propelled people into meaningless jobs and endless activity, it has also led to tremendous social benefits from prosperity and innovation.

Sol: The paragraph doesn’t give a verdict. It simply puts that x has happened but it has also led to y which is good.

Option D captures this idea the best.

 

Q20. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

1. Restitution of artefacts to original cultures could face legal obstacles, as many Western museums are legally prohibited from disposing off their
2. This is in response to countries like Nigeria, which are pressurising European museums to return their precious artefacts looted by colonisers in the
3. Museums in Europe today are struggling to come to terms with their colonial legacy, some taking steps to return artefacts but not wanting to lose their prized
4. Legal hurdles notwithstanding, politicians and institutions in France and Germany would now like to defuse the colonial time bombs, and are now backing the return of part of their

Sol: 14 form a logical pair (legal hurdles)

3 is the opening sentence and 2 gives a reason for 3. Hence, 3214

 

Q21. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

1. Businesses find automation, such as robotic employees, a big asset in terms of productivity and efficiency.
2. But in recent years, robotics has had increasing impacts on unemployment, not just of manual labour, as computers are rapidly handling some white-collar and service-sector
3. For years politicians have promised workers that they would bring back their jobs by clamping down on trade, offshoring and
4. Economists, based on their research, say that the bigger threat to jobs now is not globalisation but

Sol: 41 form a logical pair as 4 says that automation is a threat to jobs and 1 gives the reason as to why it is so. 2 adds on to 1. And 3 forms a good opening sentence which is followed by 412 that give a reality check against what the politicians have promised.

 

Q22. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Brazil’s growth rate has been low, yet most Brazilians say their financial situation has improved, and they expect it to get even better. This is because most incomes are rising fast, with higher minimum wages and very low unemployment. The result is falling inequality and a growing middle class — the result of economic stabilization, improved social security and universal primary education. But despite recent improvements the Brazilian economy is still painfully unequal, with poor Brazilians paying the biggest share of their income in taxes and getting the least back in government services.

1. Good economic indicators have masked the unfair taxation of the poor that is likely to destabilise the Brazilian economy in the next few
2. Economic reforms have benefitted many Brazilians, but they are unaware of the impending problems from rising inequalities in their society.
3. Most Brazilians feel they have benefitted from recent economic events, but the poor continue to be dealt unfairly by the
4. With rising incomes and falling unemployment, most Brazilians are being misled into thinking that their economy is doing

Sol: Option A is inference based, so it is wrong.

Options B and D do not talk about the unfair taxation of the poor. So, they can be eliminated. Hence, C is the answer.

 

Q23. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

The human mind is wired to see patterns. Not only does the brain process information as it comes in, it also stores insights from all our past experiences. Every interaction, happy or sad, is catalogued in our memory. Intuition draws from that deep memory well to inform our decisions going forward. In other words, intuitive decisions are based on data, and not contrary to data as many would like to assume. When we subconsciously spot patterns, the body starts firing neurochemicals in both the brain and gut. These “somatic markers” are what give us that instant sense that something is right … or that it’s off. Not only are these automatic processes faster than rational thought, but our intuition draws from decades of diverse qualitative experience (sights, sounds, interactions, etc.) – a wholly human feature that big data alone could never accomplish.

1. Intuitions are automatic processes and are therefore faster than rational thought, and so decisions based on them are
2. Intuitions are neuro-chemical firings based on pattern recognition and draw upon a rich and vast database of
3. Intuition draws from deep memory, and may not be related to data, but to decades of diverse qualitative experience.
4. Intuition is infinitely richer than big data which is based on rational thought and accomplishes more than what big data

Sol: Brain stores insights from all our past experiences – helps make future decisions – biological process – faster than rational thought.

It is not said that intuitive decisions are better. Option A is wrong. Option C and D are vague and miss out on key points.

Option B covers all major points.

 

Q24. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

1. It is regimes of truth that make certain relationships speakable – relationships, like subjectivities, are constituted through discursive formations, which sustain regimes of
2. Relationships are nothing without the communication that brings them into being; interpersonal communication is connected to knowledge shared by interlocutors, and scholars should attend to relational histories in their
3. A Foucauldian approach to relationships goes beyond these conceptions of discourse and history to macrolevel regimes of truth as constituting
4. Reconsidering micropractices within relationships that are constituted within and simultaneously contributors to regimes of truth acknowledges the central position of power/knowledge in the constitution of what has come to be considered true and

Sol: 1,3 and 4 talk about ‘regimes of truth’ – 3 introduces it. 2 introduces the main subject of the paragraph – relationships.

Hence, we have 23. Sentence 1 expands on ‘regimes of truth’ and how they make relationships speakable and sustain them. Sentence 4 adds to 1 and concludes the paragraph. Hence, 2314.

 

DILR

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.

For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five projects, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.

 

Q25. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I: The total project-month was the same for the four employees. II: The total employee-month was the same for the five projects.

1. Only I
2. Both I and II
3. Neither I nor II
4. Only II

Sol: From the above given passage we can tabulate the data for individual employees and note it down below.

Only statement I is true So, answer is option A

 

Q26. Which employees did not work in multiple projects for any of the months in 2020?

1. Only Abani and Bahni
2. Only Tinni
3. All four of them
4. Only Abani, Bahni and Danni

Sol: Only Tinni has worked in Project 4 and 5 So, answer is option D.

 

Q27. The project duration, measured in terms of the number of months, is the time during which at least one employee worked in the project. Which of the following pairs of the projects had the same duration?

1. Project 4, Project 5
2. Project 3, Project 4
3. Project 3, Project 5
4. Project 1, Project 5

Sol: Project 1 = 3

Project 2 = 3

Project 3 = 5

Project 4 = 5

Project 5 = 4 Answer is option B

 

Q28. The list of employees in decreasing order of annual completion index is

1. Bahni, Abani, Tinni, Danni
2. Danni, Tinni, Bahni, Abani
3. Danni, Tinni, Abani, Bahni
4. Tinni, Danni, Abani, Bahni

Sol:

D > T > A > B

Hence, option C.

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

10 players – P1, P2, … , P10 – competed in an international javelin throw event. The number (after P) of a player reflects his rank at the beginning of the event, with rank 1 going to the topmost player.

There were two phases in the event with the first phase consisting of rounds 1, 2, and 3, and the second phase consisting of rounds 4, 5, and 6. A throw is measured in terms of the distance it covers (in meters, up to one decimal point accuracy), only if the throw is a ‘valid’ one. For an invalid throw, the distance is taken as zero. A player’s score at the end of a round is the maximum distance of all his throws up to that round. Players are re-ranked after every round based on their current scores. In case of a tie in scores, the player with a prevailing higher rank retains the higher rank. This ranking determines the order in which the players go for their throws in the next round. In each of the rounds in the first phase, the players throw in increasing order of their latest rank, i.e. the player ranked 1 at that point throws first, followed by the player ranked 2 at that point and so on. The top six players at the end of the first phase qualify for the second phase. In each of the rounds in the second phase, the players throw in decreasing order of their latest rank i.e. the player ranked 6 at that point throws first, followed by the player ranked 5 at that point and so on. The players ranked 1, 2, and 3 at the end of the sixth round receive gold, silver, and bronze medals respectively. All the valid throws of the event were of distinct distances (as per stated measurement accuracy). The tables below show distances (in meters) covered by all valid throws in the first and the third round in the event.

The following facts are also known.

1. Among the throws in the second round, only the last two were valid. Both the throws enabled these players to qualify for the second phase, with one of them qualifying with the least None of these players won any medal.
2. If a player throws first in a round AND he was also the last (among the players in the current round) to throw in the previous round, then the player is said to get a Two players got a double.
3. In each round of the second phase, exactly one player improved his Each of these improvements was by the same amount.
4. The gold and bronze medalists improved their scores in the fifth and the sixth rounds One medal winner improved his score in the fourth round.
5. The difference between the final scores of the gold medalist and the silver medalist, as well as the difference between the final scores of the silver medalist and the bronze medalist was 1.0 m.

Q29. Which two players got the double?

1. P8, P10
2. P1, P10
3. P1, P8
4. P2, P4

Sol: Double has to occur once from Round 3 to Round 4 as order is reversing. And one more time it will have to occur before Phase 2 i.e., from Round 2 to Round 3 for P10 as he was the last thrower in Round 2 => He will be first thrower in Round 3.

Round 3 to Round 4 double will occur for P8.

Round 1		Round 2		Round 3		Round 4		Round 5		Round 6
P1	82.9	P7	87.2	P10	>87.2 <87.6	P8	>82.5 <82.9	P8	>82.5 <82.9	P8	>82.5 <82.9
P2	0	P5	86.4	P7	87.2	P9	84.1	P9	84.1	P9	84.1
P3	81.5	P9	84.1	P5	86.4	P5	86.4	P5	86.4	P10	>87.2 <87.6
P4	0	P1	82.9	P9	84.1	P7	87.2+1.2 = 88.4	P10	>87.2 <87.6	P5	86.4+1.2 = 87.6 (B)
P5	86.4	P6	82.5	P1	88.6	P10	>87.2 <87.6	P7	88.4+1.2 = 89.6	P1	88.6 (S)
P6	82.5	P3	81.5	P8	>82.5 <82.9	P1	88.6	P1	88.6	P7	89.6 (G)
P7	87.2	P2	0	P6	82.5
P8	0	P4	0	P3	81.5
P9	84.1	P8	>82.5 <82.9	P2	0
P10	0	P10	>87.2 <87.6	P4	0

Hence, option A.

 

Q30. Who won the silver medal?

1. P7
2. P5
3. P9
4. P1
5. Sol: From the above table, P1 won the silver medal.

 

Q31. Who threw the last javelin in the event?

1. P7
2. P1
3. P9
4. P10

Sol: From the table, P7 threw the javelin at the last.

 

Q32. What was the final score (in m) of the silver-medalist?

88. 88.6
89. 89.6
90. 88.4
91. 87.2

Sol: From the table, it is 88.6 m.

 

Q33. Which of the following can be the final score (in m) of P8?

1. 0
2. 81.9
3. 85.1
4. 82.7

Sol: Option D lies between 82.5 and 82.9.

 

Q34. By how much did the gold medalist improve his score (in m) in the second phase?

1. 1.2
2. 1.0
3. 2.4
4. 2.2

Sol: 89.6 – 87.2 = 2.4. Hence, option C.

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

 Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.

If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it. A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted.

Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.

The following facts are known about the review process after its completion.

1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and
3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and
4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and

 

Q35. How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Amal?

Sol: 1st three questions are focused on who created a particular question, For Convenience Amal, Bimal and Komal are considered as A, B and K

If a question is created by SME, then A and B review it and then depending upon conditions it is reviewed by K

If A creates a question, then it is 1st reviewed by B and then depending upon condition it is reviewed by K

If B creates a question, then it is 1st reviewed by K and then depending upon condition it is reviewed by A

If K creates a question, then it is 1st reviewed by A and then depending upon condition it is reviewed by B

Starting with Question 1, It was reviewed by only K.

So, SME cannot create it, because a question created by SME is 1st reviewed by Both A and B If A has created the question, then it is 1st reviewed by B which is not in this case

So, the only possible person who created this question is B

 

Question 2 was reviewed by all of them.

So, SME has to be the one who created this question.

 

Question 3 was reviewed by both Aman and Komal. So, the person who created this question has to be B.

 

Question 4 was reviewed by all of them so the person who created this question has to be SME. Question 5 was only created by K, So the only possible person who created this question has to be B. Question 6 was reviewed by A and B. So, the creator of the question can be SME or K.

Question 7 was reviewed by both B and K, so the only possibility who created the question is A. Question 8 was reviewed by all of them, so the only possibility who created the question is SME. Question 9 was reviewed by both B and K, so the only possibility who created the question is A. Question 10 was reviewed by only A, so the only possibility who created the question is K. Question 11 was reviewed by both A and K, so the only possibility who created the question is B. Question 12 was reviewed by both B and K, so the only possibility who created the question is A. Question 13 was reviewed by both A and B, So the possible persons are SME or K

 

The final table will look like this.

Q 7, 9 and 12 were definitely created by A.

 

Q36. How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Komal?

Sol: From the table, Q 10, i.e., 1 question.

 

Q37. How many questions were DEFINITELY created by the SMEs?

Sol: Q 2, 4 and 8 i.e., 3 questions.

 

Q38. How many questions were DEFINITELY disapproved by Bimal?

Sol:

Q39. The approval ratio of a reviewer is the ratio of the number of questions (s)he approved to the number of questions (s)he reviewed. Which option best describes Amal’s approval ratio?

1. either 25 or 0.75
2. 0.25
3. lies between 25 and 0.50
4. lies between 25 and 0.75

Sol: Questions reviewed by Amal are 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, 11, 13

• was reviewed by 3 Persons

So, Amal must have approved or rejected

• was created by B and was reviewed by A and K overall, the question was accepted

So, K must have rejected it and A must have approved it 4 must have been accepted or rejected by Amal

6 was definitely rejected by Amal

8 must have been Accepted or rejected by Amal 10 was definitely accepted by Amal

11 was definitely rejected by Amal

13 if it was created by SME then Amal definitely approved it If it was created by K then A must have rejected

The minimum approval = 2 = 2/8 = 0.25 Maximum approval = 6 =6/8 = 0.75

So, answer is option D

 

Q40. How many questions created by Amal or Bimal were disapproved by at least one of the other reviewers?

1. 5
2. 2
3. 4
4. 7

Sol:

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow: 

Each of the bottles mentioned in this question contains 50 ml of liquid. The liquid in any bottle can be 100% pure content (P) or can have certain amount of impurity (I). Visually it is not possible to distinguish between P and I. There is a testing device which detects impurity, as long as the percentage of impurity in the content tested is 10% or more.

For example, suppose bottle 1 contains only P, and bottle 2 contains 80% P and 20% I. If content from bottle 1 is tested, it will be found out that it contains only P. If content of bottle 2 is tested, the test will reveal that it contains some amount of I. If 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 20 ml content from bottle 2, the test will show that the mixture has impurity, and hence we can conclude that at least one of the two bottles has I. However, if 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle 2. the test will not detect any impurity in the resultant mixture.

 

Q41. 5 ml of content from bottle A is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle B. The resultant mixture, when tested, detects the presence of I. If it is known that bottle A contains only P, what BEST can be concluded about the volume of I in bottle B?

1. 10 ml or more
2. 1 ml
3. 10 ml
4. Less than 1 ml

Sol:

 

Q42. There are four bottles. Each bottle is known to contain only P or only I. They will be considered to be “collectively ready for despatch” if all of them contain only P. In minimum how many tests, is it possible to ascertain whether these four bottles are “collectively ready for dispatch”?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

Sol:

 

Q43. There are four bottles. It is known that three of these bottles contain only P, while the remaining one contains 80% P and 20% I. What is the minimum number of tests required to definitely identify the bottle containing some amount of I?

 

Sol: Let the 4 bottles be B1, B2, B3 and B4

Let B1, B2, B3 be pure and B4 have 80% P and 20% I

If Someone compares B1 and B4 he will find an impurity, but it is not confirmed B1 or B4 is impure If, then we compare B1 and B2, the test will show purity and we will know that B1 is pure

So, minimum 2 tests are required

 

Q44. There are four bottles. It is known that either one or two of these bottles contain(s) only P, while the remaining ones contain 85% P and 15% I. What is the minimum number of tests required to ascertain the exact number of bottles containing only P?

Sol:

 

 

QA

 Q45.

1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 8

Sol:

 

Q46.

1. 1
2. -4/3
3. 8/3
4. 0

Sol: x + |x| + 3y = 1

Multiply the above equation by 7 7x + 7|x| + 21y = 7

and 3x + 2|y| + y = 7

7x + 7|x| + 21y = 3x + 2|y| + y

4x + 20y + 7|x| = 2|y|

when x is positive and y is negative 4x + 7x + 20y = -2y

11x + 22y = 0

11 * (x + 2y) = 0

x + 2y = 0

 

Q47. A shop owner bought a total of 64 shirts from a wholesale market that came in two sizes, small and large. The price of a small shirt was INR 50 less than that of a large shirt. She paid a total of INR 5000 for the large shirts, and a total of INR 1800 for the small shirts. Then, the price of a large shirt and a small shirt together, in INR, is

1. 200
2. 175
3. 150
4. 225

Sol: Let small shirts be a, large shirts will be 64 – a Let the price of Large shirt be x

Then the price of a Small shirt will be (x – 50) x * (64 – a) = 5000

64x – ax = 5000……… (1)

(x – 50) * a = 1800

ax – 50a = 1800…….. (2)

adding the equations 64x – 50a = 6800

The answer required is 2x – 50

For x to be an integer option A and option C is the only possible option If A is correct, x = 125

If C is correct, x = 100 but 6400 – 50a = 6800 isn’t possible. So, A is correct

 

Q48. Bank A offers 6% interest rate per annum compounded half yearly. Bank B and Bank C offer simple interest but the annual interest rate offered by Bank C is twice that of Bank B. Raju invests a certain amount in Bank B for a certain period and Rupa invests ₹ 10,000 in Bank C for twice that period. The interest that would accrue to Raju during that period is equal to the interest that would have accrued had he invested the same amount in Bank A for one year. The interest accrued, in INR, to Rupa is

1. 1436
2. 2436
3. 2346
4. 3436

Sol: 6% pa = 3% half yearly => in 1 yr, 6.09% (3 + 3 + 3*3/100)

6.09% x 2 x 2 x 10000 = 2436

 

Q49. A four-digit number is formed by using only the digits 1, 2 and 3 such that both 2 and 3 appear at least once. The number of all such four-digit numbers is

1. 40
2. 100
3. 60
4. 50

Sol: The possible cases are

2, 3, 1, 1 = Total numbers possible = (4 * 3 * 2 * 1)/ 2 = 12

2, 3, 1, 2 = Total numbers possible = (4 * 3 * 2 * 1)/ 2 = 12

2, 3, 1, 3 = Total numbers possible = (4 * 3 * 2 * 1)/ 2 = 12

2, 3, 2, 3 = Total numbers possible = (4 * 3 * 2 * 1)/ 4 = 6

2, 3, 2, 2 = Total numbers possible = 4

2, 3, 3, 3 = Total numbers possible = 4

Total is 50

 

Q50. A tea shop offers tea in cups of three different sizes. The product of the prices, in INR, of three different sizes is equal to 800. The prices of the smallest size and the medium size are in the ratio 2:5 If the shop owner decides to increase the prices of the smallest and the medium ones by INR 6 keeping the price of the largest size unchanged, the product then changes to 3200. The sum of the original prices of three different sizes, in INR, is

1. 42
2. 36
3. 34
4. 32

Sol: The prices of the smallest size and the medium size are in the ratio 2 : 5 Let the size of smallest cup be 2x, then the size of medium cup will be 5x and the size of the largest cup be, y

The product of the prices, in INR, of three different sizes is equal to 800 10yx^2 = 800

yx^2 = 80

when x = 1, y will be 80 when x = 2, y will be 20 when x = 4, y will be 5

If the shop owner decides to increase the prices of the smallest and the medium ones by INR 6 keeping the price of the largest size unchanged, the product then changes to 3200

(2x + 6) * (5x + 6) * y = 3200

x = 2 and y = 20 satisfies the above equation Small = 2x = 4

Medium = 5x = 10 Largest = y = 20

Sum = 20 + 10 + 4 = 34

 

Q51. One part of a hostel’s monthly expenses is fixed, and the other part is proportional to the number of its boarders. The hostel collects ₹ 1600 per month from each boarder. When the number of boarders is 50, the profit of the hostel is ₹ 200 per boarder, and when the number of boarders is 75, the profit of the hostel is ₹ 250 per boarder. When the number of boarders is 80, the total profit of the hostel, in INR, will be

1. 20500
2. 20200
3. 20000
4. 20800

Sol: Let the fixed expenses be a and proportional expense be kb, where k is constant and b is number of boarders.

The hostel collects ₹1600 per month from each boarder. When the number of boarders is 50, the profit of the hostel is ₹200/boarder

Revenue of the hostel will be 1600 * 50 Profit of the hostel will be 200 * 50

and the expense of the hostel will be a + 50b Revenue – Profit = Expense

1600 * 50 – 200 * 50 = a + 50b

1400 * 50 = a + 50b………equation 1

when the number of boarders is 75, the profit of the hostel is ₹ 250 per boarder Revenue of the hostel will be 1600 * 75

Profit of the hostel will be 250 * 75

and the expense of the hostel will be a + 75b Revenue – Profit = Expense

1600 * 75 – 250 * 75 = a + 75b

1350 * 75 = a + 75b…….. equation 2

Solving equation 1 and Equation 2 we will get a = 7500 and k = 1250

For 80,

Revenue will be 1600 * 80

Expense will be 7500 + 1250 * 80 Profit will be Revenue – Expense Answer is 20500.

 

Q52.

1. 3 < a < 4
2. a > 5
3. 4 < a < 5
4. 2 < a < 3

Sol:

 

Q53. Anil can paint a house in 12 days while Barun can paint it in 16 days. Anil, Barun, and Chandu undertake to paint the house for ₹ 24000 and the three of them together complete the painting in 6 days. If Chandu is paid in proportion to the work done by him, then the amount in INR received by him is

1. 3200
2. 3000
3. 2000
4. 4000

Sol: Let the total work be 48 units Anil can paint a house in 12 days

So, his rate of doing work will be 48/12 = 4 units per day Barun can paint a house in 16 days

So, his rate of doing work will be 48/16 = 3 units per day and the rate of Chandu be x units per day

three of them together complete the painting in 6 days.

Time * Rate = Work (4 + 3 + x) * 6 = 48

7 + x = 8

x = 1

So, the share of Chandu will be 1/(1+4+3) x 24000 = 3000

 

Q54.

1. 80
2. 100
3. 72
4. 96

Sol:

Let the angle DAE be b we know that AD = DE

So, angle DEA will also be b and angle ADE = 180 – 2b Let angle DBF be a

we know that DB = DF

So, angle DFB will also be a So, angle BDF will be 180 – 2a In triangle ABC

50 + a + b = 180 a + b = 130

Angle FDE = 180 – angle (BDF+ADE) Angle FDE = 2 * (a + b) – 180

Angle FDE = 260 – 180

Required answer is 80 degrees.

 

Q55. In a tournament, a team has played 40 matches so far and won 30% of them. If they win 60% of the remaining matches, their overall win percentage will be 50%. Suppose they win 90% of the remaining matches, then the total number of matches won by the team in the tournament will be

1. 84
2. 86
3. 78
4. 80

Sol:

 

Q56. The total of male and female populations in a city increased by 25% from 1970 to 1980. During the same period, the male population increased by 40% while the female population increased by 20%. From 1980 to 1990, the female population increased by 25%. In 1990, if the female population is twice the male population, then the percentage increase in the total of male and female populations in the city from 1970 to 1990 is

1. 68.5
2. 68.75
3. 68.25
4. 69.25

Sol:

 

Q57. A park is shaped like a rhombus and has area 96 sq m. If 40 m of fencing is needed to enclose the park, the cost, in INR, of laying electric wires along its two diagonals, at the rate of ₹125 per m, is

1. 3000
2. 3500
3. 4000
4. 4500

Sol:

 

Q58. The cost of fencing a rectangular plot is ₹ 200 per ft along one side, and ₹ 100 per ft along the three other sides. If the area of the rectangular plot is 60000 sq. ft, then the lowest possible cost of fencing all four sides, in INR, is

1. 160000
2. 90000
3. 120000
4. 100000

Sol:

 

Q59.

1. 4849
2. 4950
3. 4850
4. 4849

Sol:

 

Q60.

1. 25(√3+√15)
2. 25(√3+√15)/2
3. 25(√5+√15)/2
4. 25(√5+√15)

Sol:

 

Q61.

1. 13
2. 12
3. 10
4. 8

Sol: (0, -2), (0, 2), (0, -3), (0, 3), (0, -4), (0, 4) => 6

And 6 more like (-2, 0),….

Total = 12

 

Q62. One day, Rahul started a work at 9 AM and Gautam joined him two hours later. They then worked together and completed the work at 5 PM the same day. If both had started at 9 AM and worked together, the work would have been completed 30 minutes earlier. Working alone, the time Rahul would have taken, in hours, to complete the work is

1. 12
2. 11.5
3. 11
4. 10

Sol:

 

Q63.

1. -16
2. -20
3. -15
4. -10

Sol:

 

Q64. The arithmetic mean of scores of 25 students in an examination is 50. Five of these students top the examination with the same score. If the scores of the other students are distinct integers with the lowest being 30, then the maximum possible score of the toppers is

1. 92
2. 102
3. 78
4. 94

Sol: 25 students have an average score of 50 So, the total score will be 25 * 50 = 1250

we, want to maximize the 5 top scores who have the same score Let that score be x

and the remaining 20 will have a distinct score with the minimum score as 30 So, total will from 30, 31, 32………… 49

The sum will be 790 790 + 5x = 1250

5x = 460

So, x will be 92

 

Q65. Mira and Amal walk along a circular track, starting from the same point at the same time. If they walk in the same direction, then in 45 minutes, Amal completes exactly 3 more rounds than Mira. If they walk in opposite directions, then they meet for the first time exactly after 3 minutes. The number of rounds Mira walks in one hour is

1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 6

Sol: Let spds be a, m kmph and length of track = x km (3/4)(a-m) = 3x

=> a-m = 4x x/(a+m) = 3/60

=> a+m = 20x

a = 12x, m = 8x kmph

So, m walks 8x/x = 8 rounds in an hour

 

Q66. If a certain weight of an alloy of silver and copper is mixed with 3 kg of pure silver, the resulting alloy will have 90% silver by weight. If the same weight of the initial alloy is mixed with 2 kg of another alloy which has 90% silver by weight, the resulting alloy will have 84% silver by weight. Then, the weight of the initial alloy, in kg, is

1. 2.5
2. 3
3. 3.5
4. 4

Sol: