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CAT 2023 Slot 2 Question Paper With Solution | VARC, LRDI, QA

iQuanta provides you with the past year CAT papers.The CAT 2023 Slot 2 question papers along with detailed solutions are presented here.

~Instructions~

  • Set a time limit of 120 minutes, dividing it into 40 minutes for each section: VARC, DILR and QUANTS.
  • Attempt the questions as if you were in the actual exam, and afterward, check the solutions to understand and improve your performance.

CAT 2023 Slot 2 VARC Question Paper With Solution

Reading Comprehension 1

The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.


Over the past four centuries liberalism has been so successful that it has driven all its opponents off the battlefield. Now it is disintegrating, destroyed by a mix of hubris and internal contradictions, according to Patrick Deneen, a professor of politics at the University of Notre Dame. . . . Equality of opportunity has produced a new meritocratic aristocracy that has all the aloofness of the old aristocracy with none of its sense of noblesse oblige. Democracy has degenerated into a theatre of the absurd. And technological advances are reducing ever more areas of work into meaningless drudgery. “The gap between liberalism’s claims about itself and the lived reality of the citizenry” is now so wide that “the lie can no longer be accepted,” Mr Deneen writes. What better proof of this than the vision of 1,000 private planes whisking their occupants to Davos to discuss the question of “creating a shared future in a fragmented world”? . . .


Deneen does an impressive job of capturing the current mood of disillusionment, echoing leftwing complaints about rampant commercialism, right-wing complaints about narcissistic and bullying students, and general worries about atomisation and selfishness. But when he concludes that all this adds up to a failure of liberalism, is his argument convincing? . . . He argues that the essence of liberalism lies in freeing individuals from constraints. In fact, liberalism contains a wide range of intellectual traditions which provide different answers to the question of how to trade off the relative claims of rights and responsibilities, individual expression and social ties. . . . liberals experimented with a range of ideas from devolving power from the centre to creating national education systems.


Mr Deneen’s fixation on the essence of liberalism leads to the second big problem of his book: his failure to recognise liberalism’s ability to reform itself and address its internal problems. The late 19th century saw America suffering from many of the problems that are reappearing today, including the creation of a business aristocracy, the rise of vast companies, the corruption of politics and the sense that society was dividing into winners and losers. But a wide variety of reformers, working within the liberal tradition, tackled these problems head on. Theodore Roosevelt took on the trusts. Progressives cleaned up government corruption. University reformers modernised academic syllabuses and built ladders of opportunity. Rather than dying, liberalism reformed itself.


Mr Deneen is right to point out that the record of liberalism in recent years has been dismal. He is also right to assert that the world has much to learn from the premodern notions of liberty as self-mastery and self-denial. The biggest enemy of liberalism is not so much atomisation but old-fashioned greed, as members of the Davos elite pile their plates ever higher with perks and share options. But he is wrong to argue that the only way for people to liberate themselves from the contradictions of liberalism is “liberation from liberalism itself”. The best way to read “Why Liberalism Failed” is not as a funeral oration but as a call to action: up your game, or else.

Q1. The author of the passage faults Deneen’s conclusions for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A. its very narrow definition of liberalism limited to individual freedoms.
B. its failure to note historical instances in which the process of declining liberalism has managed to reverse itself.
C. its repeated harking back to premodern notions of liberty.
D. its extreme pessimism about the future of liberalism today and predictions of an ultimate decline.

Explanation:

The author of the passage critiques Deneen's conclusions for various reasons but not for Option 3: "its repeated harking back to premodern notions of liberty." The passage actually acknowledges that "He is also right to assert that the world has much to learn from the premodern notions of liberty as self-mastery and self-denial." This acknowledgment suggests that the author doesn't fault Deneen for looking back to premodern notions of liberty; in fact, it's seen as a valid point. Therefore, Option 3 is the exception among the listed reasons and is not a fault found by the author in Deneen's conclusions.
The other options represent faults found by the author in Deneen's conclusions:
Option 1: The author faults Deneen for having a very narrow definition of liberalism limited to individual freedoms. The passage mentions Deneen's fixation on the essence of liberalism and critiques his narrow interpretation.
Option 2: The author faults Deneen for failing to note historical instances in which liberalism has managed to reverse itself. The passage references how reformers within the liberal tradition have previously addressed problems similar to those seen today.
Option 4: The author faults Deneen for his extreme pessimism about the future of liberalism and predictions of its ultimate decline. The passage suggests that the best way to read "Why Liberalism Failed" is as a call to action rather than a funeral oration.

Correct Answer is C

Q2. The author of the passage refers to “the Davos elite” to illustrate his views on:

A. the hypocrisy of the liberal rich, who profess to subscribe to liberal values while cornering most of the wealth.
B. the unlikelihood of a return to the liberalism of the past as long as the rich continue to benefit from the decline in liberal values.
C. the fact that the rise in liberalism had led to a greater interest in shared futures from unlikely social classes.
D. the way the debate around liberalism has been captured by the rich who have managed to insulate themselves from economic hardships.

Explanation:

The author of the passage refers to "the Davos elite" to illustrate his views on Option 1: the hypocrisy of the liberal rich, who profess to subscribe to liberal values while cornering most of the wealth. The passage mentions the vision of "1,000 private planes whisking their occupants to Davos to discuss the question of 'creating a shared future in a fragmented world,'" suggesting a contradiction between the expressed liberal values of sharing and unity and the elite's behavior, which involves exclusive and luxurious modes of travel. This imagery serves to highlight the gap between the professed ideals and the actual practices of the wealthy and powerful, embodying the hypocrisy of those who may outwardly support liberal values while simultaneously engaging in and benefiting from practices that are contrary to those values.
The other options don't align as closely with the author's use of "the Davos elite":
Option 2: This suggests a specific condition for the return to liberalism, which isn't the primary focus of the Davos elite mention.
Option 3: This implies a positive outcome of liberalism leading to greater interest from various social classes, which is not the context provided by the Davos reference.
Option 4: While the passage does critique the elite, the specific mention of the Davos elite is more directly linked to illustrating the hypocrisy in their behavior rather than a broader capture of the debate by the rich.

Correct Answer is A

Q3. The author of the passage is likely to disagree with all of the following statements, EXCEPT:

A. if we accept that liberalism is a dying ideal, we must work to find a viable substitute.
B. liberalism was the dominant ideal in the past century, but it had to reform itself to remain so.
C. claims about liberalism’s disintegration are exaggerated and misunderstand its core features.
D. the essence of liberalism lies in greater individual self-expression and freedoms

Explanation:

The author of the passage is likely to agree with Option 2: liberalism was the dominant ideal in the past century, but it had to reform itself to remain so. This statement aligns with the author's discussion of liberalism's ability to reform itself. The passage specifically mentions historical instances, such as the late 19th century in America, where liberalism faced challenges akin to those it faces today. It highlights how a variety of reformers within the liberal tradition, including Theodore Roosevelt and university reformers, tackled these problems head-on, leading to the revitalization and continuation of liberalism. This acknowledgment of liberalism's historical adaptability and resilience suggests that the author would agree with the statement that liberalism needed to reform itself to remain dominant.
The author is likely to disagree with the other statements because:
Option 1: The passage suggests that liberalism has historically faced and overcome challenges, implying that it may not be a dying ideal but rather one capable of reform and renewal. The author points out liberalism's adaptability rather than advocating for finding a new substitute.
Option 3: While the author acknowledges criticisms of liberalism, they also point out its adaptability and the diverse range of ideas within the liberal tradition. The author seems to suggest that while liberalism faces challenges, it is not disintegrating as claimed by some critics.
Option 4: The passage critiques the narrow definition of liberalism as solely about individual freedoms and suggests that such a view oversimplifies the range of intellectual traditions within liberalism. The author emphasizes the diversity and complexity of liberalism, likely disagreeing with a reductionist view of its essence.

Correct Answer is B

Q4. All of the following statements are evidence of the decline of liberalism today, EXCEPT:

A. “‘The gap between liberalism’s claims about itself and the lived reality of the citizenry’ is now so wide that ‘the lie can no longer be accepted,’. . .”
B. “Democracy has degenerated into a theatre of the absurd.”
C. “. . . the creation of a business aristocracy, the rise of vast companies . . .”
D. “And technological advances are reducing ever more areas of work into meaningless drudgery.”

Explanation:

Option 4, "And technological advances are reducing ever more areas of work into meaningless drudgery," is the correct choice as the statement that does not directly serve as evidence of the decline of liberalism today. This statement addresses a consequence of technological advances on the nature of work, indicating a shift toward more drudgery and less meaningful employment. While this might be a concern within liberal societies and could reflect broader socio-economic trends, it isn't specifically an indictment of liberal ideology or philosophy itself. It doesn't directly critique the principles of liberalism or suggest a failure of liberal policies or ideals, unlike the other options which point more directly to perceived failures or contradictions within liberalism itself.
The other options are more directly indicative of the decline of liberalism:
Option 1: Suggests that liberalism's promises are far removed from the actual experiences of people, indicating a failure or shortfall in liberal ideals.
Option 2: Indicates a perceived degradation of democratic processes, suggesting a failure in one of the key mechanisms of liberal societies.
Option 3: Discusses the rise of a business aristocracy and vast companies, which could be seen as resulting from or contributing to inequalities in liberal societies, reflecting a possible failure in addressing economic disparities within the framework of liberalism.

Correct Answer is D

Reading Comprehension 2

The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.


Umberto Eco, an Italian writer, was right when he said the language of Europe is translation. Netflix and other deep-pocketed global firms speak it well. Just as the EU employs a small army of translators and interpreters to turn intricate laws or impassioned speeches of Romanian MEPs into the EU’s 24 official languages, so do the likes of Netflix. It now offers dubbing in 34 languages and subtitling in a few more. . . .


The economics of European productions are more appealing, too. American audiences are more willing than before to give dubbed or subtitled viewing a chance. This means shows such as “Lupin”, a French crime caper on Netflix, can become global hits. . . . In 2015, about 75% of Netflix’s original content was American; now the figure is half, according to Ampere, a media-analysis company. Netflix has about 100 productions under way in Europe, which is more than big public broadcasters in France or Germany. . . .
Not everything works across borders. Comedy sometimes struggles. Whodunits and bloodthirsty maelstroms between arch Romans and uppity tribesmen have a more universal appeal. Some do it better than others. Barbarians aside, German television is not always built for export, says one executive, being polite. A bigger problem is that national broadcasters still dominate. Streaming services, such as Netflix or Disney+, account for about a third of all viewing hours, even in markets where they are well-established. Europe is an ageing continent. The generation of teens staring at phones is outnumbered by their elders who prefer to gawp at the box.


In Brussels and national capitals, the prospect of Netflix as a cultural hegemon is seen as a threat. “Cultural sovereignty” is the watchword of European executives worried that the Americans will eat their lunch. To be fair, Netflix content sometimes seems stuck in an uncanny valley somewhere in the mid-Atlantic, with local quirks stripped out. Netflix originals tend to have fewer specific cultural references than shows produced by domestic rivals, according to Enders, a market analyst. The company used to have an imperial model of commissioning, with executives in Los Angeles cooking up ideas French people might like. Now Netflix has offices across Europe. But ultimately the big decisions rest with American executives. This makes European politicians nervous.


They should not be. An irony of European integration is that it is often American companies that facilitate it. Google Translate makes European newspapers comprehensible, even if a little clunky, for the continent’s non-polyglots. American social-media companies make it easier for Europeans to talk politics across borders. (That they do not always like to hear what they say about each other is another matter.) Now Netflix and friends pump the same content into homes across a continent, making culture a cross-border endeavour, too. If Europeans are to share a currency, bail each other out in times of financial need and share vaccines in a pandemic, then they need to have something in common—even if it is just bingeing on the same series. Watching fictitious northern and southern Europeans tear each other apart 2,000 years ago beats doing so in reality.

Q5. Based on information provided in the passage, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:

A. only half of Netflix’s original programming in the EU is now produced in America.
B. national broadcasters dominate in the EU in terms of total television viewing hours.
C. Netflix has been able to transform itself into a truly European entity.
D. European television productions have the potential to become global hits.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided in the passage, the statement Option 3: "Netflix has been able to transform itself into a truly European entity" is not supported and is the exception. While the passage discusses Netflix's significant investment in European productions and its ability to offer content in multiple languages, it also highlights that the ultimate decisions rest with American executives and that Netflix's content sometimes lacks specific cultural references, making it less "European" in nature. The passage mentions Netflix's imperial model of commissioning and its shift towards having offices across Europe, but it implies that despite these changes, the core decision-making and some aspects of content production are still very much American. This suggests that while Netflix is making strides in European markets and content, it hasn't fully transformed into a truly European entity.
The other options are supported by the passage:
Option 1: The passage states that about 75% of Netflix’s original content was American in 2015, but now the figure is half. This supports the statement that only half of Netflix’s original programming in the EU is now produced in America.
Option 2: The passage indicates that national broadcasters still dominate in terms of total television viewing hours, even in markets where streaming services are well-established.
Option 4: The passage references shows like “Lupin,” a French production, becoming global hits, indicating that European television productions have the potential to become popular worldwide.

Correct Answer is C

Q6. The author sees the rise of Netflix in Europe as:

A. a looming cultural threat.
B. a unifying force.
C. filling an entertainment gap.
D. an economic threat.

Explanation:

The author sees the rise of Netflix in Europe as Option 2: a unifying force. The passage discusses how Netflix and similar companies facilitate European integration by pumping the same content into homes across the continent, making culture a cross-border endeavor. The author mentions that if Europeans are to share various aspects of life, such as a currency, financial support, and vaccines, they also need something in common, "even if it is just bingeing on the same series." This suggests that the author views the spread of Netflix as a factor contributing to a shared cultural experience, which can help unify people across different European nations.
The other options don't align with the author's perspective as described in the passage:
Option 1: While the passage does mention concerns about "cultural sovereignty" and the prospect of Netflix as a cultural hegemon, the overall tone regarding Netflix's influence is not predominantly negative or fearful. The author instead highlights the positive aspect of integration facilitated by such platforms.
Option 3: The passage doesn't specifically frame Netflix's rise as merely filling an entertainment gap; rather, it focuses on the broader cultural and integrative impact of the platform.
Option 4: The economic aspect is not the main focus of the passage when discussing Netflix's rise. While there are mentions of European executives worried about the Americans eating their lunch, the overarching view of Netflix is more about its cultural and unifying role than an economic threat.

Correct Answer is B

Q7. Based only on information provided in the passage, which one of the following hypothetical Netflix shows would be most successful with audiences across the EU?

A. An original German TV science fiction production.
B. A murder mystery drama set in North Africa and France.
C. An Italian comedy show hosted by an international star.
D. A trans-Atlantic romantic drama set in Europe and America

Explanation:

Based only on the information provided in the passage, the hypothetical Netflix show most likely to be successful with audiences across the EU would be Option 2: A murder mystery drama set in North Africa and France. The passage mentions that whodunits (another term for murder mysteries) have a more universal appeal and are among the genres that work well across borders. The inclusion of settings in North Africa and France also suggests a cross-cultural narrative that might appeal to a diverse European audience familiar with both regions. This aligns with the passage's discussion of content that has the potential to become global hits, as seen with "Lupin," a French crime caper.
The other options don't directly align with the passage's suggestions about successful content:
Option 1: While a German TV science fiction production could be appealing, the passage doesn't specifically mention science fiction as a universally appealing genre.
Option 3: An Italian comedy show might face challenges, as the passage notes that comedy sometimes struggles across borders due to varying cultural nuances in humor.
Option 4: A trans-Atlantic romantic drama could be appealing, but the passage doesn't specifically highlight romance as a universally successful genre like it does for murder mysteries.

Correct Answer is B

Q8. Which one of the following research findings would weaken the author’s conclusion in the final paragraph?

A. Research shows that Netflix has been gradually losing market share to other streaming television service providers.
B. Research shows that Netflix hits produced in France are very popular with North American audiences.
C. Research shows there is a wide variance in the popularity and viewing of Netflix shows across different EU countries.
D. Research shows that older women across the EU enjoy watching romantic comedies on Netflix, whereas younger women prefer historical fiction dramas.

Explanation:

Option 3: "Research shows there is a wide variance in the popularity and viewing of Netflix shows across different EU countries" would weaken the author's conclusion in the final paragraph. The author concludes that Netflix and similar companies are serving as a unifying force in Europe by providing shared cultural content. If research indicates that there's a wide variance in the popularity and viewing habits of Netflix shows across different EU countries, it suggests that the platform might not be as effective in creating a shared cultural experience as the author suggests. This variance would imply that the content is not uniformly appealing or unifying across the continent, thus weakening the author's assertion about the unifying impact of Netflix in Europe.
The other options don't directly weaken the author's conclusion about Netflix serving as a unifying cultural force:
Option 1: While losing market share might suggest competitive challenges for Netflix, it doesn't directly address the unifying cultural impact of the content it provides.
Option 2: Popularity of French Netflix hits with North American audiences might reinforce the global appeal of some European productions but doesn't negate the unifying force within Europe.
Option 4: Different preferences among demographic groups within the EU might illustrate diversity in tastes but don't necessarily weaken the argument about cross-border cultural unification.

Correct Answer is C

Reading Comprehension 3

The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.


The Second Hand September campaign, led by Oxfam . . . seeks to encourage shopping at local organisations and charities as alternatives to fast fashion brands such as Primark and Boohoo in the name of saving our planet. As innocent as mindless scrolling through online shops may seem, such consumers are unintentionally—or perhaps even knowingly— contributing to an industry that uses more energy than aviation. . . .


Brits buy more garments than any other country in Europe, so it comes as no shock that many of those clothes end up in UK landfills each year: 300,000 tonnes of them, to be exact. This waste of clothing is destructive to our planet, releasing greenhouse gasses as clothes are burnt as well as bleeding toxins and dyes into the surrounding soil and water. As ecologist Chelsea Rochman bluntly put it, “The mismanagement of our waste has even come back to haunt us on our dinner plate.”


It’s not surprising, then, that people are scrambling for a solution, the most common of which is second-hand shopping. Retailers selling consigned clothing are currently expanding at a rapid rate . . . If everyone bought just one used item in a year, it would save 449 million lbs of waste, equivalent to the weight of 1 million Polar bears. “Thrifting” has increasingly become a trendy practice. London is home to many second-hand, or more commonly coined ‘vintage’, shops across the city from Bayswater to Brixton.
So you’re cool and you care about the planet; you’ve killed two birds with one stone. But do people simply purchase a second-hand item, flash it on Instagram with #vintage and call it a day without considering whether what they are doing is actually effective?


According to a study commissioned by Patagonia, for instance, older clothes shed more microfibres. These can end up in our rivers and seas after just one wash due to the worn material, thus contributing to microfibre pollution. To break it down, the amount of microfibres released by laundering 100,000 fleece jackets is equivalent to as many as 11,900 plastic grocery bags, and up to 40 per cent of that ends up in our oceans. . . . So where does this leave second-hand consumers? [They would be well advised to buy] high-quality items that shed less and last longer [as this] combats both microfibre pollution and excess garments ending up in landfills. .


Luxury brands would rather not circulate their latest season stock around the globe to be sold at a cheaper price, which is why companies like ThredUP, a US fashion resale marketplace, have not yet caught on in the UK. There will always be a market for consignment but there is also a whole generation of people who have been taught that only buying new products is the norm; second-hand luxury goods are not in their psyche. Ben Whitaker, director at Liquidation Firm B-Stock, told Prospect that unless recycling becomes cost-effective and filters into mass production, with the right technology to partner it, “high-end retailers would rather put brand before sustainability.”

Q9. Based on the passage, we can infer that the opposite of fast fashion, ‘slow fashion’, would most likely refer to clothes that:

A. do not shed microfibres.
B. are of high quality and long lasting.
C. are sold by genuine vintage stores.
D. do not bleed toxins and dyes.

Explanation:

Based on the passage, the opposite of fast fashion, 'slow fashion,' would most likely refer to clothes that are Option 2: of high quality and long lasting. The passage discusses the destructive environmental impact of fast fashion and suggests that buying high-quality items that shed less and last longer is a way to combat microfibre pollution and reduce garment waste in landfills. This indicates an emphasis on sustainability and durability as key characteristics of an alternative to fast fashion, which aligns with the idea of "slow fashion" focusing on quality, longevity, and reduced environmental impact.
The other options, while related to environmental concerns, are not as directly tied to the concept of slow fashion as presented in the passage:
Option 1: While reducing microfibre shedding is an environmental benefit, the passage doesn't specifically associate it with the broader concept of slow fashion.
Option 3: Genuine vintage stores are mentioned in the context of second-hand shopping, but the passage doesn't explicitly equate them with the entire concept of slow fashion.
Option 4: While preventing the release of toxins and dyes is an environmental benefit, the passage focuses more on the longevity and quality of clothing as the counter to fast fashion rather than solely on the absence of harmful substances.

Correct Answer is B

Q10. According to the author, companies like ThredUP have not caught on in the UK for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:

A. the British don’t buy second-hand clothing.
B. luxury brands want to maintain their brand image.
C. recycling is currently not financially attractive for luxury brands.
D. luxury brands do not like their product to be devalued

Explanation:

According to the author, companies like ThredUP have not caught on in the UK for all the following reasons EXCEPT that Option 1: the British don’t buy second-hand clothing. The passage doesn't say that the British don't buy second-hand clothing. In fact, it discusses the popularity of "thrifting" and the presence of second-hand or 'vintage' shops across London, indicating that there is indeed a market for second-hand clothing in the UK.
The other options are supported by the passage as reasons for the lack of popularity of companies like ThredUP:
Option 2: Luxury brands want to maintain their brand image. The passage mentions that luxury brands would rather not circulate their latest season stock around the globe to be sold at a cheaper price, implying a concern for maintaining brand image and exclusivity.
Option 3: Recycling is currently not financially attractive for luxury brands. The passage quotes Ben Whitaker mentioning that unless recycling becomes cost-effective and integrates into mass production, luxury brands would prefer brand preservation over sustainability, indicating that the current financial incentives for recycling are lacking.
Option 4: Luxury brands do not like their product to be devalued. This is related to maintaining brand image and exclusivity, as mentioned with the reluctance to circulate goods globally at reduced prices, which could devalue the products.

Correct Answer is A

Q11. The act of “thrifting”, as described in the passage, can be considered ironic because it:

A. has created environmental problems.
B. is not cost-effective for retailers.
C. offers luxury clothing at cut-rate prices.
D. is an anti-consumerist attitude.

Explanation:

The act of "thrifting," as described in the passage, can be considered ironic due to the environmental problems it inadvertently contributes to, as indicated in Option 1: "has created environmental problems." This irony stems from the fact that while thrifting is generally seen as a sustainable practice aimed at reducing the waste and environmental impact associated with fast fashion, it also has its own unintended consequences. Specifically, the passage mentions that older clothes, common in thrifting, tend to shed more microfibres, leading to microfibre pollution in rivers and seas after washing. This environmental issue is particularly ironic because thrifting is advocated for its environmental benefits, yet in some ways, it still contributes to pollution, an issue it aims to mitigate. This contradiction between the intended sustainable nature of thrifting and its potential to exacerbate certain environmental problems represents the irony in this context.

Correct Answer is A

Q12. The central idea of the passage would be undermined if:

A. clothes were not thrown and burnt in landfills.
B. second-hand stores sold only high-quality clothes.
C. customers bought all their clothes online.
D. Primark and Boohoo recycled their clothes for vintage stores.

Explanation:

The central idea of the passage would be undermined if Option 2: second-hand stores sold only high-quality clothes. The passage discusses the benefits of thrifting as a counter to fast fashion, emphasizing the environmental savings and the reduction in waste. However, it also highlights the irony of older clothes shedding more microfibres, contributing to environmental problems. If second-hand stores sold only high-quality clothes that shed less and lasted longer, it would address one of the main concerns raised in the passage about the environmental impact of thrifting due to microfibre pollution. This change would strengthen the sustainability claim of second-hand shopping and reduce the irony of its unintended environmental consequences, thus undermining the passage's discussion of the complexities and unexpected issues associated with thrifting.
The other options don't directly undermine the central idea of the passage:
Option 1: While reducing waste in landfills is a goal of thrifting, the passage focuses on the broader issue of environmental impact and the irony of microfibre pollution. Not throwing and burning clothes in landfills doesn't address the nuanced discussion of thrifting's unintended consequences.
Option 3: Customers buying all their clothes online doesn't directly relate to the environmental impact of thrifting or the irony of microfibre pollution from older clothes.
Option 4: Primark and Boohoo recycling their clothes for vintage stores could potentially support the central idea by contributing to a more sustainable fashion cycle, rather than undermining the complexities and ironies associated with thrifting as discussed in the passage.

Correct Answer is B

Reading Comprehension 4

The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.


The Positivists, anxious to stake out their claim for history as a science, contributed the weight of their influence to the cult of facts. First ascertain the facts, said the positivists, then draw your conclusions from them. . . . This is what may [be] called the common-sense view of history. History consists of a corpus of ascertained facts. The facts are available to the historian in documents, inscriptions, and so on . . . [Sir George Clark] contrasted the “hard core of facts” in history with the surrounding pulp of disputable interpretation forgetting perhaps that the pulpy part of the fruit is more rewarding than the hard core. . . . It recalls the favourite dictum of the great liberal journalist C. P. Scott: “Facts are sacred, opinion is free.”. . .
What is a historical fact? . . . According to the common-sense view, there are certain basic facts which are the same for all historians and which form, so to speak, the backbone of history—the fact, for example, that the Battle of Hastings was fought in 1066. But this view calls for two observations. In the first place, it is not with facts like these that the historian is primarily concerned. It is no doubt important to know that the great battle was fought in 1066 and not in 1065 or 1067, and that it was fought at Hastings and not at Eastbourne or Brighton. The historian must not get these things wrong. But [to] praise a historian for his accuracy is like praising an architect for using well-seasoned timber or properly mixed concrete in his building. It is a necessary condition of his work, but not his essential function. It is precisely for matters of this kind that the historian is entitled to rely on what have been called the “auxiliary sciences” of history—archaeology, epigraphy, numismatics, chronology, and so forth. . . .


The second observation is that the necessity to establish these basic facts rests not on any quality in the facts themselves, but on an apriori decision of the historian. In spite of C. P. Scott’s motto, every journalist knows today that the most effective way to influence opinion is by the selection and arrangement of the appropriate facts. It used to be said that facts speak for themselves. This is, of course, untrue. The facts speak only when the historian calls on them: it is he who decides to which facts to give the floor, and in what order or context. . . . The only reason why we are interested to know that the battle was fought at Hastings in 1066 is that historians regard it as a major historical event. . . . Professor Talcott Parsons once called [science] “a selective system of cognitive orientations to reality.” It might perhaps have been put more simply. But history is, among other things, that. The historian is necessarily selective. The belief in a hard core of historical facts existing objectively and independently of the interpretation of the historian is a preposterous fallacy, but one which it is very hard to eradicate.

Q13. If the author of the passage were to write a book on the Battle of Hastings along the lines of his/her own reasoning, the focus of the historical account would be on:

A. exploring the socio-political and economic factors that led to the Battle.
B. providing a nuanced interpretation by relying on the auxiliary sciences.
C. producing a detailed timeline of the various events that led to the Battle.
D. deriving historical facts from the relevant documents and inscriptions.

Explanation:

If the author of the passage were to write a book on the Battle of Hastings along the lines of his/her own reasoning, the focus of the historical account would likely be on Option 1: exploring the socio-political and economic factors that led to the Battle. This option aligns with the author's critique of the positivist approach, emphasizing the importance of interpretation, context, and the selection of facts over merely stating the "hard core of facts." The author suggests that the essential function of historians is not just to ascertain basic facts like dates and locations (which are likened to the necessary but not sufficient conditions of architectural materials) but to provide a deeper understanding and interpretation of historical events. This would involve examining broader socio-political and economic factors, as well as possibly the consequences and significance of the battle, in order to provide a richer, more insightful historical account. This approach reflects the author's view that history is not just a collection of objective facts but a selective and interpretative discipline shaped by the historian's decisions about which facts to emphasize and how to contextualize them.

Correct Answer is A

Q14. According to this passage, which one of the following statements best describes the significance of archaeology for historians?

A. Archaeology helps historians to locate the oldest civilisations in history.
B. Archaeology helps historians to carry out their primary duty.
C. Archaeology helps historians to ascertain factual accuracy.
D. Archaeology helps historians to interpret historical facts

Explanation:

According to this passage, the statement that best describes the significance of archaeology for historians is Option 3: Archaeology helps historians to ascertain factual accuracy. The passage refers to archaeology as one of the "auxiliary sciences" of history, alongside epigraphy, numismatics, and chronology, which historians rely on to ensure the accuracy of basic facts such as dates and locations. The author emphasizes that while ensuring these factual accuracies is not the historian's essential function, it is a necessary condition of their work. Archaeology, as an auxiliary science, aids historians in establishing these basic facts about the past, providing the groundwork upon which more interpretive and analytical historical work can be built. The passage stresses the need for accuracy in historical work, likening it to an architect using well-seasoned timber or properly mixed concrete, indicating the fundamental role of archaeology in helping historians verify the factual details of historical events.

Correct Answer is C

Q15. All of the following, if true, can weaken the passage’s claim that facts do not speak for themselves, EXCEPT:

A. facts, like truth, can be relative: what is fact for person X may not be so for person Y.
B. the order in which a series of facts is presented does not have any bearing on the production of meaning.
C. the truth value of a fact is independent of the historian who expresses it.
D. a fact, by its very nature, is objective and universal, irrespective of the context in which it is placed.

Explanation:

The passage's claim that "facts do not speak for themselves" suggests that facts require interpretation and context to have meaning and that the historian's role is crucial in giving facts significance and relevance. Therefore, any statement that supports the idea that facts need interpretation or context would not weaken this claim. Let's examine the options:

Option 1: Facts, like truth, can be relative: what is fact for person X may not be so for person Y.
This option actually supports the claim by suggesting that facts can be seen differently by different people, implying that interpretation is necessary. It does not weaken the claim.
Option 2: The order in which a series of facts is presented does not have any bearing on the production of meaning.
This option would weaken the claim by suggesting that the arrangement or presentation of facts doesn't affect their interpretation or meaning, contrary to the passage's assertion that the historian's selection and arrangement of facts influence opinion.
Option 3: The truth value of a fact is independent of the historian who expresses it.
This option would weaken the claim by suggesting that facts have an inherent truth value regardless of the historian's interpretation, challenging the idea that facts need to be given voice by the historian.
Option 4: A fact, by its very nature, is objective and universal, irrespective of the context in which it is placed.
This option would weaken the claim by asserting the objectivity and universality of facts, suggesting that they do not require interpretation or context for their meaning, contradicting the passage's view.
Based on the above analysis, Option 1 does not weaken the passage's claim that facts do not speak for themselves. In fact, it aligns with the idea that facts are subject to interpretation and context, which is consistent with the passage's argument.

Correct Answer is A

Q16. All of the following describe the “common-sense view” of history, EXCEPT:

A. only the positivist methods can lead to credible historical knowledge.
B. history is like science: a selective system of cognitive orientations to reality.
C. history can be objective like the sciences if it is derived from historical facts.
D. real history can be found in ancient engravings and archival documents.

Explanation:

The passage discusses the common-sense view of history, primarily focusing on the role of facts in historical inquiry. Let's evaluate the options based on how they relate to or deviate from this common-sense view:
Option 1: Only the positivist methods can lead to credible historical knowledge.
The passage does associate positivism with a fact-based approach to history, but it doesn't explicitly state that only positivist methods are credible or that this is part of the common-sense view. The focus is more on the role of facts rather than strictly on positivist methods.
Option 2: History is like science: a selective system of cognitive orientations to reality.
This option does not describe the common-sense view as presented in the passage. The common-sense view is more about the accumulation of ascertained facts and doesn't delve into the idea of history as a selective system of cognitive orientations. This description seems to be more in line with the author's critique or a more nuanced view of history rather than the common-sense view, which is more straightforward and fact-focused.
Option 3: History can be objective like the sciences if it is derived from historical facts.
This option aligns with the common-sense view of history as presented in the passage. It emphasizes the accumulation and derivation of history from facts, suggesting objectivity similar to that in sciences.
Option 4: Real history can be found in ancient engravings and archival documents.
This option aligns with the common-sense view, which holds that history consists of a corpus of ascertained facts available to historians in documents, inscriptions, etc. It suggests that historical knowledge is sourced from tangible, factual evidence.
Based on the above analysis, Option 2 is the correct answer as it does not describe the common-sense view of history according to the passage. The common-sense view is portrayed as straightforward, fact-focused, and somewhat simplistic, not as a selective system of cognitive orientations to reality, which implies a more complex and interpretive approach.

Correct Answer is B

Fill in the Blank 1

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Q17.

Sentence: And probably much earlier, moving the documentation for kissing back 1,000 years compared to what was acknowledged in the scientific community.


Paragraph: Research has hypothesised that the earliest evidence of human lip kissing originated in a very specific geographical location in South Asia 3,500 years ago.___(1)___. From there it may have spread to other regions, simultaneously accelerating the spread of the herpes simplex virus 1. According to Dr Troels Pank Arbøll and Dr Sophie Lund Rasmussen, who in a new article in the journal Science draw on a range of written sources from the earliest Mesopotamian societies, kissing was already a well-established practice 4,500 years ago in the Middle East.___(2)___. In ancient Mesopotamia, people wrote in cuneiform script on clay tablets.___(3)___. Many thousands of these clay tablets have survived to this day, and they contain clear examples that kissing was considered a part of romantic intimacy in ancient times.___(4)___. “Kissing could also have been part of friendships and family members’ relations,” says Dr Troels Pank Arbøll, an expert on the history of medicine in Mesopotamia.

A. Option 1
B. Option 3
C. Option 4
D. Option 2

Explanation:

The sentence "And probably much earlier, moving the documentation for kissing back 1,000 years compared to what was acknowledged in the scientific community." best fits Option 2.
Here's the reasoning:
Before Option 1: The introductory sentence sets up the hypothesis of the earliest evidence of kissing in South Asia 3,500 years ago. Placing the sentence here would be premature because it discusses moving the documentation back further, which should logically come after a reference to existing documentation.
Option 1 to Option 2: The paragraph transitions from the hypothesis about the origin of kissing to specific research by Dr. Arbøll and Dr. Rasmussen, which posits that kissing was already established 4,500 years ago in the Middle East. Placing the sentence here makes sense as it directly follows the mention of this earlier date, emphasizing that the practice may have been even older, effectively pushing back the timeline recognized by the scientific community.
After Option 2: The paragraph continues to discuss the use of cuneiform script in ancient Mesopotamia and the evidence on clay tablets. Placing the sentence here would interrupt the flow of detailing the evidence from ancient Mesopotamia.
After Option 3: This is too far into the specifics of the Mesopotamian evidence and would disrupt the flow of the discussion about the types of relationships that included kissing.
Therefore, placing the sentence in blank 2 provides a smooth transition from discussing the established research to suggesting that the origins of kissing might date back even further, effectively enhancing the narrative about the historical documentation of kissing.

Correct Answer is D

Fill in the Blank 2

There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Q18.

Sentence: Dualism was long held as the defining feature of developing countries in contrast to developed countries, where frontier technologies and high productivity were assumed to prevail.

Paragraph: ___(1)___. At the core of development economics lies the idea of ‘productive dualism’: that poor countries’ economies are split between a narrow ‘modern’ sector that uses advanced technologies and a larger ‘traditional’ sector characterized by very low productivity.___(2)___. While this distinction between developing and advanced economies may have made some sense in the 1950s and 1960s, it no longer appears to be very relevant. A combination of forces have produced a widening gap between the winners and those left behind.___(3)___. Convergence between poor and rich parts of the economy was arrested and regional disparities widened.___(4)___. As a result, policymakers in advanced economies are now grappling with the same questions that have long preoccupied developing economies: mainly how to close the gap with the more advanced parts of the economy.

A. Option 1
B. Option 2
C. Option 3
D. Option 4

Explanation:

The sentence "Dualism was long held as the defining feature of developing countries in contrast to developed countries, where frontier technologies and high productivity were assumed to prevail" fits best at Option 2. Here's why:
Before Option 1: The paragraph starts with the idea of 'productive dualism' in development economics, describing the split in poor countries' economies. This is foundational and sets the context.
Option 2: After establishing what 'productive dualism' is, placing the sentence here serves as a historical backdrop, explaining how dualism was traditionally perceived in contrasting developing and developed countries. It directly complements the initial explanation of 'productive dualism' by providing the conventional contrast that has been used to distinguish between developing and developed countries, making it a natural fit after the concept is introduced but before discussing the shift or change in this perception.
Option 3 and Option 4: The later parts of the paragraph discuss how the distinction between developing and advanced economies is no longer relevant and the implications of this shift. Inserting the sentence here would interrupt the progression into discussing current disparities and policy questions.
Therefore, placing the sentence at Option 2 provides a historical context and contrast right after introducing the concept of 'productive dualism', enhancing the narrative about the evolution of economic understanding regarding developing and developed countries. This helps the reader understand the traditional view before moving on to how that view has changed in the current context.

Correct Answer is B

Odd One Out 1

Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

Q19.

  1. The banning of Northern Lights could be considered a precursor to censoring books for “moral”, world view or religious reasons.
  2. Attempts to ban books are attempts to silence authors who have summoned immense courage in telling their stories.
  3. Now the banning and challenging of books in the US has escalated to an unprecedented level.
  4. The widely acclaimed fantasy novel Northern Lights was banned in some parts of the US, and was the second most challenged book in the US.
  5. The American Library Association documented an unparalleled number of reported book challenges in 2022, about 2,500 unique titles.

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Explanation:

To form a coherent paragraph, let's look for sentences that connect logically on the topic of book banning and censorship. Here are the sentences in order:

Sentence 4: This sentence sets a specific example of book banning by mentioning the fantasy novel "Northern Lights" and its status in some parts of the US. It establishes a context of discussing banned books.
Sentence 1: This sentence relates directly to Sentence 4 by further discussing the banning of "Northern Lights" and generalizing it as a precursor to broader censoring trends. It extends the specific case to a more general phenomenon.
Sentence 3: Builds on the theme of book banning by stating that the practice has escalated to an unprecedented level in the US, which naturally follows the discussion of trends and precursors.
Sentence 5: Provides data from the American Library Association, supporting the claim made in Sentence 3 about the escalation of book challenges.
These four sentences (4, 1, 3, 5) form a coherent narrative about the practice of book banning, starting from a specific example, discussing its implications, general escalation, and current statistics.
Sentence 2: "Attempts to ban books are attempts to silence authors who have summoned immense courage in telling their stories." While this sentence is related to the theme of book banning, it focuses on the impact on authors and their courage rather than the trend or statistics of book banning. It doesn't directly tie into the specific-to-general escalation narrative formed by the other sentences.
Therefore, Sentence 2 is the odd one out as it diverges in focus and doesn't fit into the coherent progression of the other sentences discussing the trend and data of book banning.

Correct Answer is B

Odd One Out 2

Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

Q20.

1. Self-care particularly links to loneliness, behavioural problems, and negative academic outcomes.

2. “Latchkey children” refers to children who routinely return home from school to empty homes and take care of themselves for extended periods of time.

3. Although self-care generally points to negative outcomes, it is important to consider that the bulk of research has yet to track long-term consequences.

4. In research and practice, the phrase “children in self-care” has come to replace latchkey in an effort to more accurately reflect the nature of their circumstances.

5. Although parents might believe that self-care would be beneficial for development, recent research has found quite the opposite.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Explanation:

To form a coherent paragraph, let's look for sentences that logically connect to each other and establish a narrative around the topic of "latchkey children" or "children in self-care." Here are the sentences:
Sentence 2: Introduces the term "Latchkey children," which is essential to setting the context of the discussion. It's a natural starting point.
Sentence 4: Continues from Sentence 2 by explaining how the terminology has evolved to "children in self-care" to better reflect their circumstances, linking directly to the topic introduced in Sentence 2.
Sentence 1: Discusses the consequences of self-care, linking to both "latchkey children" and "children in self-care" by talking about the outcomes of such a situation.
Sentence 5: Adds to the discussion on outcomes by indicating that recent research has found negative consequences, which contradicts what some parents might believe about the benefits of self-care.
These four sentences (2, 4, 1, 5) form a coherent narrative about latchkey children, the evolution of the term, and the associated outcomes based on recent research.
Sentence 3: "Although self-care generally points to negative outcomes, it is important to consider that the bulk of research has yet to track long-term consequences." This sentence introduces a note of caution or a different perspective by suggesting that long-term consequences of self-care have not been fully tracked yet. While it's related to the topic and adds an important nuance, it doesn't fit as neatly into the sequence of the other four sentences, which are more directly focused on defining the term and discussing the known negative outcomes.
Therefore, Sentence 3 is the odd one out as it diverges slightly in focus by introducing the idea of the unknown long-term consequences, which isn't as directly connected to the coherent flow of defining and discussing the outcomes of self-care as established by the other sentences.

Correct Answer is C

Para Jumbles 1

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

Q21.

  1. Like the ants that make up a colony, no single neuron holds complex information like self-awareness, hope or pride.
  2. Although the human brain is not yet understood enough to identify the mechanism by which emergence functions, most neurobiologists agree that complex interconnections among the parts give rise to qualities that belong only to the whole.
  3. Nonetheless, the sum of all neurons in the nervous system generate complex human emotions like fear and joy, none of which can be attributed to a single neuron.
  4. Human consciousness is often called an emergent property of the human brain.

A. 1234
B. 2413
C. 4132
D. 3214

Explanation:
The proper sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is 4-1-3-2:
Sentence 4 introduces the concept of human consciousness as an emergent property of the brain, setting the stage for the discussion.
Sentence 1 provides an analogy of ants in a colony to neurons in the brain, emphasizing that like ants, no single neuron contains complex information or consciousness.
Sentence 3 builds on this by explaining that the collection of neurons produces complex human emotions, emphasizing the emergent nature of these properties from simpler elements.
Sentence 2 concludes the paragraph by acknowledging the current understanding of the brain and the agreement among neurobiologists that complex interconnections give rise to emergent qualities.
This sequence (4-1-3-2) logically introduces the concept, provides an analogy and specific example, and then discusses the broader consensus and challenges in understanding the brain's emergent properties.
Correct Answer is C

Para Jumbles 2

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

Q22.

  1. Contemporary African writing like ‘The Bottled Leopard’ voices this theme using two children and two backgrounds to juxtapose two varying cultures.
  2. Chukwuemeka Ike explores the conflict, and casts the Western tradition as condescending, enveloping and unaccommodating towards local African practice.
  3. However, their views contradict the reality, for a rich and sustaining local African cultural ethos exists for all who care, to see and experience.
  4. Western Christian concepts tend to deny or feign ignorance about the existence of a genuine and enduring indigenous African tradition.

A. 2341
B. 1243
C. 3214
D. 4321

Explanation:

To form a coherent paragraph, the sentences should be sequenced in a way that introduces the topic and then logically develops and illustrates it. Here's the sequence:
Sentence 4: Introduces the central conflict between Western Christian concepts and indigenous African tradition, setting up the theme of cultural conflict and misunderstanding.
Sentence 3: Provides a contradiction to the Western view, asserting that a rich local African cultural ethos does indeed exist, directly addressing the denial or ignorance mentioned in Sentence 4.
Sentence 2: Introduces Chukwuemeka Ike's exploration of this conflict in his work, providing a specific example of how literature addresses the cultural conflict between Western and African traditions.
Sentence 1: Further illustrates how contemporary African writing, like ‘The Bottled Leopard’, uses storytelling and character contrasts to highlight and explore the cultural dichotomy.
This sequence (4-3-2-1) starts by establishing the broader cultural conflict, then refutes the misconception about African culture, introduces a specific author's approach to this theme, and finally gives an example of how contemporary literature portrays this cultural juxtaposition. This flow provides a clear thematic development from general cultural conflict to specific literary illustration.

Correct Answer is D

Para Summary 1

Q23.

Heatwaves are becoming longer, frequent and intense due to climate change. The impacts of extreme heat are unevenly experienced; with older people and young children, those with pre-existing medical conditions and on low incomes significantly more vulnerable. Adaptation to heatwaves is a significant public policy concern. Research conducted among at-risk people in the UK reveals that even vulnerable people do not perceive themselves as at risk of extreme heat; therefore, early warnings of extreme heat events do not perform as intended. This suggests that understanding how extreme heat is narrated is very important. The news media play a central role in this process and can help warn people about the potential danger, as well as about impacts on infrastructure and society.

A. Heatwaves pose an enormous risk; the media plays a pivotal role in alerting people to this danger.
B. Protection from heat waves is important but current reports and public policies seem ineffective.
C. People are vulnerable to heatwaves caused due to climate change, measures taken are ineffective.
D. News stories help in warning about heatwaves, but they have to become more effective.

Explanation:

The option that best captures the essence of the passage is Option 1: Heatwaves pose an enormous risk; the media plays a pivotal role in alerting people to this danger. This summary encapsulates the two main points of the passage: the increasing risk of heatwaves due to climate change and the uneven impact on vulnerable populations, alongside the crucial role of the media in communicating and potentially mitigating this risk by effectively narrating and warning about extreme heat events.

The other options don't fully capture the passage's emphasis or details:
Option 2: While it mentions the importance of protection and the ineffectiveness of current approaches, it doesn't specifically highlight the media's role in awareness and mitigation, which is a central theme in the passage.
Option 3: This option acknowledges the vulnerability and the ineffectiveness of measures taken but doesn't emphasize the role of media narratives in shaping public perception and response, which is a key aspect discussed in the passage.
Option 4: This option recognizes the importance of news stories in warning about heatwaves but suggests they need to become more effective. While it touches on the media's role, it doesn't fully encapsulate the broader context of climate change, vulnerability, and the existing perception gap among at-risk populations.

Correct Answer is A

Para Summary 2

Q24.

People spontaneously create counterfactual alternatives to reality when they think “if only” or “what if” and imagine how the past could have been different. The mind computes counterfactuals for many reasons. Counterfactuals explain the past and prepare for the future, they implicate various relations including causal ones, and they affect intentions and decisions. They modulate emotions such as regret and relief, and they support moral judgments such as blame. The ability to create counterfactuals develops throughout childhood and contributes to reasoning about other people’s beliefs, including their false beliefs.

A. Counterfactuals help people to prepare for the future by understanding intentions and making decisions.
B. Counterfactual alternatives to reality are created for a variety of reasons and is part of one’s developmental process.
C. People create counterfactual alternatives to reality for various reasons, including reasoning about other people’s beliefs.
D. Counterfactual thinking helps to reverse past and future actions and reason out false beliefs.

Explanation:

The option that best captures the essence of the passage is Option 2: Counterfactual alternatives to reality are created for a variety of reasons and is part of one's developmental process. This summary effectively encapsulates the passage's main points: the diverse purposes of counterfactual thinking (explaining the past, preparing for the future, implicating relations, modulating emotions, and supporting moral judgments), as well as its role in cognitive development and understanding others' beliefs.

The other options capture parts of the passage but don't encapsulate the full range of counterfactual thinking's roles or its developmental aspect as comprehensively as Option 2:
Option 1: This option focuses on preparing for the future and decision-making, which are indeed functions of counterfactual thinking, but it doesn't encompass the full scope of reasons or the developmental aspect mentioned in the passage.
Option 3: This option highlights the creation of counterfactual alternatives for various reasons, including reasoning about others' beliefs. While accurate, it doesn't address the full range of purposes or the developmental aspect as comprehensively as Option 2.
Option 4: This option suggests that counterfactual thinking helps to reverse actions and reason out false beliefs. While it touches on aspects of counterfactual thinking, it doesn't fully capture the variety of roles or the developmental process outlined in the passage.

Correct Answer is B

CAT 2023 Slot 2 LRDI Question Paper With Solution

Set 1

There are nine boxes arranged in a 3×3 array as shown in Tables 1 and 2. Each box contains three sacks. Each sack has a certain number of coins, between 1 and 9, both inclusive.
The average number of coins per sack in the boxes are all distinct integers. The total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the numbers of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes. In Table 2 each box has a number which represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins. That number is followed by a * if the sacks in that box satisfy exactly one among the following three conditions, and it is followed by ** if two or more of these conditions are satisfied.

i) The minimum among the numbers of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.

ii) The median of the numbers of coins in the three sacks is 1.

iii) The maximum among the numbers of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

Q1. What is the total number of coins in all the boxes in the 3rd row?

A. 36
B. 15
C. 45
D. 30

Explanation: 

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the number of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes
Table 2 - The number against each box represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins
* => exactly 1 of the below conditions are met
** => 2 or more of the below conditions are met
i) The minimum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.
ii) The median of the number of coins in the three sacks is 1.
iii) The maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The 2nd box in the 1st row has 3 sacks and the median of the number of coins in the 3 sacks is 9. Since coins vary from 1 to 9, the 3rd sack must also have 9 coins. The number ‘2’ in Table 2 for that box means 2 boxes have more than 5 coins. => The 1st box must have 3 coins so that the average of 9,9,3 = 7 comes out to be an integer.

For 1st box in the 3rd row, the median is 8, all boxes have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied which can only be that the max coins in a sack are 9. So, for the average to be an integer, coins in the 3 sacks will be 7,8,9. Hence, average = 8.
For 1st box in the 2nd row, the median is 2, and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The median can’t be 1 as it is 2 (given). Hence, min and max coins in the 3 sacks will be 1 and 9 respectively. Therefore, average = (1+9+2)/3 = 4
For 3rd box in the 2nd row, all 3 sacks have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied. That condition can only be maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The minimum sum of coins in the 3 sacks can be 9+6+6 = 21 and max can be 9+9+9 = 27, i.e., the average can be min 7 and max 9. Since averages 7 and 8 are already assigned, only 9 is possible. Hence, 9 is the average of this box.
For 2nd box in the 3rd row, 2 sacks have more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. Since 2 sacks have more than 5 coins, the median cannot be 1. Therefore, one sack has 9 coins, another has 1 coin, and the last one has more than 5 coins. For the average to be an integer, the 3rd sack must have 8 coins. Therefore, average becomes (1+8+9)/3 = 6

Either the 2nd box in the 2nd row or the 3rd box in the 3rd row will have the average number of coins in the 3 sacks as 1 since 0 sacks have more than 5 coins in them. Now, the 2nd box in the 2nd row satisfies only 1 condition. If it had 1,1,1 coins in the 3 sacks, it would have satisfied 2 conditions - min 1 coin and median 1. But since it does not, we conclude that the 3rd box in the 3rd row has 1,1,1 coins and average = 1.

We are left to assign an average of 2,3,5 only now. Average 5 will be for the 3rd box in the 1st row as both the other boxes have less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins and we can’t have an average 5 with less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins.

1st box in the 1st row has 1 sack having more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The condition that 1 sack has 9 coins can’t be true here because if that is true, we will have an average exceeding 3, but we have only 2 and 3 averages left to assign. Hence, one sack has 1 coin and the median is 1 i.e., 1,1,x → x has to be more than 5. It can only be 7, and in that case, the average comes to be 3.
Lastly, the average of 2nd box in the 2nd row will be 2.
The final table of averages looks like this:

The number of coins in each of the 3 sacks of the 9 boxes is:

We also notice that the total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.
∴ Total coins in the 3rd row = (8+6+1) x 3 = 45 (because 8,6,1 are the averages of 3 sacks)

Correct Answer is C

Q2. How many boxes have at least one sack containing 9 coins?

A. 8
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Explanation: 

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the number of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes
Table 2 - The number against each box represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins
* => exactly 1 of the below conditions are met
** => 2 or more of the below conditions are met
i) The minimum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.
ii) The median of the number of coins in the three sacks is 1.
iii) The maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The 2nd box in the 1st row has 3 sacks and the median of the number of coins in the 3 sacks is 9. Since coins vary from 1 to 9, the 3rd sack must also have 9 coins. The number ‘2’ in Table 2 for that box means 2 boxes have more than 5 coins. => The 1st box must have 3 coins so that the average of 9,9,3 = 7 comes out to be an integer.

For 1st box in the 3rd row, the median is 8, all boxes have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied which can only be that the max coins in a sack are 9. So, for the average to be an integer, coins in the 3 sacks will be 7,8,9. Hence, average = 8.
For 1st box in the 2nd row, the median is 2, and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The median can’t be 1 as it is 2 (given). Hence, min and max coins in the 3 sacks will be 1 and 9 respectively. Therefore, average = (1+9+2)/3 = 4
For 3rd box in the 2nd row, all 3 sacks have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied. That condition can only be maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The minimum sum of coins in the 3 sacks can be 9+6+6 = 21 and max can be 9+9+9 = 27, i.e., the average can be min 7 and max 9. Since averages 7 and 8 are already assigned, only 9 is possible. Hence, 9 is the average of this box.
For 2nd box in the 3rd row, 2 sacks have more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. Since 2 sacks have more than 5 coins, the median cannot be 1. Therefore, one sack has 9 coins, another has 1 coin, and the last one has more than 5 coins. For the average to be an integer, the 3rd sack must have 8 coins. Therefore, average becomes (1+8+9)/3 = 6

Either the 2nd box in the 2nd row or the 3rd box in the 3rd row will have the average number of coins in the 3 sacks as 1 since 0 sacks have more than 5 coins in them. Now, the 2nd box in the 2nd row satisfies only 1 condition. If it had 1,1,1 coins in the 3 sacks, it would have satisfied 2 conditions - min 1 coin and median 1. But since it does not, we conclude that the 3rd box in the 3rd row has 1,1,1 coins and average = 1.

We are left to assign an average of 2,3,5 only now. Average 5 will be for the 3rd box in the 1st row as both the other boxes have less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins and we can’t have an average 5 with less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins.

1st box in the 1st row has 1 sack having more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The condition that 1 sack has 9 coins can’t be true here because if that is true, we will have an average exceeding 3, but we have only 2 and 3 averages left to assign. Hence, one sack has 1 coin and the median is 1 i.e., 1,1,x → x has to be more than 5. It can only be 7, and in that case, the average comes to be 3.
Lastly, the average of 2nd box in the 2nd row will be 2.

The final table of averages looks like this:

The number of coins in each of the 3 sacks of the 9 boxes is:

We also notice that the total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.
∴ 5 boxes have at least 1 sack having 9 coins.

Correct Answer is D

 

Q3. For how many boxes are the average and median of the numbers of coins contained in the three sacks in that box the same?

A. 8
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4

Explanation: 

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the number of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes
Table 2 - The number against each box represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins
* => exactly 1 of the below conditions are met
** => 2 or more of the below conditions are met
i) The minimum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.
ii) The median of the number of coins in the three sacks is 1.
iii) The maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The 2nd box in the 1st row has 3 sacks and the median of the number of coins in the 3 sacks is 9. Since coins vary from 1 to 9, the 3rd sack must also have 9 coins. The number ‘2’ in Table 2 for that box means 2 boxes have more than 5 coins. => The 1st box must have 3 coins so that the average of 9,9,3 = 7 comes out to be an integer.

For 1st box in the 3rd row, the median is 8, all boxes have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied which can only be that the max coins in a sack are 9. So, for the average to be an integer, coins in the 3 sacks will be 7,8,9. Hence, average = 8.
For 1st box in the 2nd row, the median is 2, and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The median can’t be 1 as it is 2 (given). Hence, min and max coins in the 3 sacks will be 1 and 9 respectively. Therefore, average = (1+9+2)/3 = 4

For 3rd box in the 2nd row, all 3 sacks have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied. That condition can only be maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The minimum sum of coins in the 3 sacks can be 9+6+6 = 21 and max can be 9+9+9 = 27, i.e., the average can be min 7 and max 9. Since averages 7 and 8 are already assigned, only 9 is possible. Hence, 9 is the average of this box.
For 2nd box in the 3rd row, 2 sacks have more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. Since 2 sacks have more than 5 coins, the median cannot be 1.

Therefore, one sack has 9 coins, another has 1 coin, and the last one has more than 5 coins. For the average to be an integer, the 3rd sack must have 8 coins. Therefore, average becomes (1+8+9)/3 = 6

Either the 2nd box in the 2nd row or the 3rd box in the 3rd row will have the average number of coins in the 3 sacks as 1 since 0 sacks have more than 5 coins in them. Now, the 2nd box in the 2nd row satisfies only 1 condition. If it had 1,1,1 coins in the 3 sacks, it would have satisfied 2 conditions - min 1 coin and median 1. But since it does not, we conclude that the 3rd box in the 3rd row has 1,1,1 coins and average = 1.

We are left to assign an average of 2,3,5 only now. Average 5 will be for the 3rd box in the 1st row as both the other boxes have less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins and we can’t have an average 5 with less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins.

1st box in the 1st row has 1 sack having more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The condition that 1 sack has 9 coins can’t be true here because if that is true, we will have an average exceeding 3, but we have only 2 and 3 averages left to assign. Hence, one sack has 1 coin and the median is 1 i.e., 1,1,x → x has to be more than 5. It can only be 7, and in that case, the average comes to be 3.
Lastly, the average of 2nd box in the 2nd row will be 2.

The final table of averages looks like this:

The number of coins in each of the 3 sacks of the 9 boxes is:

We also notice that the total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.
∴ Average and the median are same for 4 boxes.

Correct Answer is D

Q4. How many sacks have exactly one coin?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

Explanation: 

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the number of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes
Table 2 - The number against each box represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins
* => exactly 1 of the below conditions are met
** => 2 or more of the below conditions are met
i) The minimum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.
ii) The median of the number of coins in the three sacks is 1.
iii) The maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.
The 2nd box in the 1st row has 3 sacks and the median of the number of coins in the 3 sacks is 9. Since coins vary from 1 to 9, the 3rd sack must also have 9 coins. The number ‘2’ in Table 2 for that box means 2 boxes have more than 5 coins. => The 1st box must have 3 coins so that the average of 9,9,3 = 7 comes out to be an integer.

For 1st box in the 3rd row, the median is 8, all boxes have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied which can only be that the max coins in a sack are 9. So, for the average to be an integer, coins in the 3 sacks will be 7,8,9. Hence, average = 8.
For 1st box in the 2nd row, the median is 2, and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The median can’t be 1 as it is 2 (given). Hence, min and max coins in the 3 sacks will be 1 and 9 respectively. Therefore, average = (1+9+2)/3 = 4
For 3rd box in the 2nd row, all 3 sacks have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied. That condition can only be maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The minimum sum of coins in the 3 sacks can be 9+6+6 = 21 and max can be 9+9+9 = 27, i.e., the average can be min 7 and max 9. Since averages 7 and 8 are already assigned, only 9 is possible. Hence, 9 is the average of this box.
For 2nd box in the 3rd row, 2 sacks have more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. Since 2 sacks have more than 5 coins, the median cannot be 1

Therefore, one sack has 9 coins, another has 1 coin, and the last one has more than 5 coins. For the average to be an integer, the 3rd sack must have 8 coins. Therefore, average becomes (1+8+9)/3 = 6

Either the 2nd box in the 2nd row or the 3rd box in the 3rd row will have the average number of coins in the 3 sacks as 1 since 0 sacks have more than 5 coins in them. Now, the 2nd box in the 2nd row satisfies only 1 condition. If it had 1,1,1 coins in the 3 sacks, it would have satisfied 2 conditions - min 1 coin and median 1. But since it does not, we conclude that the 3rd box in the 3rd row has 1,1,1 coins and average = 1.

We are left to assign an average of 2,3,5 only now. Average 5 will be for the 3rd box in the 1st row as both the other boxes have less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins and we can’t have an average 5 with less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins.

1st box in the 1st row has 1 sack having more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The condition that 1 sack has 9 coins can’t be true here because if that is true, we will have an average exceeding 3, but we have only 2 and 3 averages left to assign. Hence, one sack has 1 coin and the median is 1 i.e., 1,1,x → x has to be more than 5. It can only be 7, and in that case, the average comes to be 3.
Lastly, the average of 2nd box in the 2nd row will be 2.

The final table of averages looks like this:

The number of coins in each of the 3 sacks of the 9 boxes is:

We also notice that the total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.

∴ Average and the median are same for 4 boxes.

Correct Answer is D

Q5. In how many boxes do all three sacks contain different numbers of coins?

A. 9
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1

Explanation:

Table 1 gives information regarding the median of the number of coins in the three sacks in a box for some of the boxes
Table 2 - The number against each box represents the number of sacks in that box having more than 5 coins
* => exactly 1 of the below conditions are met
** => 2 or more of the below conditions are met
i) The minimum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 1.
ii) The median of the number of coins in the three sacks is 1.
iii) The maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.
The 2nd box in the 1st row has 3 sacks and the median of the number of coins in the 3 sacks is 9. Since coins vary from 1 to 9, the 3rd sack must also have 9 coins. The number ‘2’ in Table 2 for that box means 2 boxes have more than 5 coins. => The 1st box must have 3 coins so that the average of 9,9,3 = 7 comes out to be an integer.

For 1st box in the 3rd row, the median is 8, all boxes have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied which can only be that the max coins in a sack are 9. So, for the average to be an integer, coins in the 3 sacks will be 7,8,9. Hence, average = 8.
For 1st box in the 2nd row, the median is 2, and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The median can’t be 1 as it is 2 (given). Hence, min and max coins in the 3 sacks will be 1 and 9 respectively. Therefore, average = (1+9+2)/3 = 4

For 3rd box in the 2nd row, all 3 sacks have more than 5 coins, and 1 condition is satisfied. That condition can only be maximum among the number of coins in the three sacks in the box is 9.

The minimum sum of coins in the 3 sacks can be 9+6+6 = 21 and max can be 9+9+9 = 27, i.e., the average can be min 7 and max 9. Since averages 7 and 8 are already assigned, only 9 is possible. Hence, 9 is the average of this box.
For 2nd box in the 3rd row, 2 sacks have more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. Since 2 sacks have more than 5 coins, the median cannot be 1. Therefore, one sack has 9 coins, another has 1 coin, and the last one has more than 5 coins. For the average to be an integer, the 3rd sack must have 8 coins. Therefore, average becomes (1+8+9)/3 = 6

Either the 2nd box in the 2nd row or the 3rd box in the 3rd row will have the average number of coins in the 3 sacks as 1 since 0 sacks have more than 5 coins in them. Now, the 2nd box in the 2nd row satisfies only 1 condition. If it had 1,1,1 coins in the 3 sacks, it would have satisfied 2 conditions - min 1 coin and median 1. But since it does not, we conclude that the 3rd box in the 3rd row has 1,1,1 coins and average = 1.

We are left to assign an average of 2,3,5 only now. Average 5 will be for the 3rd box in the 1st row as both the other boxes have less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins and we can’t have an average 5 with less than 2 sacks having more than 5 coins.

1st box in the 1st row has 1 sack having more than 5 coins and 2 or more conditions are satisfied. The condition that 1 sack has 9 coins can’t be true here because if that is true, we will have an average exceeding 3, but we have only 2 and 3 averages left to assign. Hence, one sack has 1 coin and the median is 1 i.e., 1,1,x → x has to be more than 5. It can only be 7, and in that case, the average comes to be 3.
Lastly, the average of 2nd box in the 2nd row will be 2.

The final table of averages looks like this:

The number of coins in each of the 3 sacks of the 9 boxes is:

We also notice that the total number of coins in each row is the same. The total number of coins in each column is also the same.
∴ In 5 boxes, all 3 sacks have different numbers of coins.

Correct Answer is B

Set 2

Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.


The table below provides partial information about the five firms.

Q6. For which firm(s) can the amounts raised by them be concluded with certainty in each year?

A. Only Czechy
B. Only Drjbna
C. Only Czechy and Drjbna
D. Only Bzygoo and Czechy and Drjbna

Explanation: 

- Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence
- The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down
- Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.

We will denote the 5 firms by A,B,C,D,E

A: Raised 1 cr in 2009 and 2016. In the 6 years in between, it raised 19 cr..
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 5 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 5 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1
These are the two possibilities.

B: Raised 1 cr each in 2012 and 2015

C: Raised 1 cr in 2013 and raised 8 cr more before closing down
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility.

D: raised 1 crore each in 2011 and 2015. In the 3 years between, it raised 8 cr
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility considering the constraints.

E: Raised 1 cr in 2010 and 12 cr after that before closing down.
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 3 –> 5 –> 3 –> 1
These are the three possibilities.

∴ Amounts raised by only Czechy and Drjbna can be concluded with certainty in each year.

Correct Answer is C

Q7. What best can be concluded about the total amount of money raised in 2015?

A. It is either Rs. 7 crores or Rs. 8 crores or Rs. 9 crores.
B. It is either Rs. 8 crores or Rs. 9 crores.
C. It is either Rs. 7 crores or Rs. 8 crores.
D. It is exactly Rs. 8 crores.

Explanation: 

- Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence
- The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down
- Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.

We will denote the 5 firms by A,B,C,D,E

A: Raised 1 cr in 2009 and 2016. In the 6 years in between, it raised 19 cr..
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 5 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 5 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1
These are the two possibilities.

B: Raised 1 cr each in 2012 and 2015

C: Raised 1 cr in 2013 and raised 8 cr more before closing down
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility.

D: raised 1 crore each in 2011 and 2015. In the 3 years between, it raised 8 cr
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility considering the constraints.

E: Raised 1 cr in 2010 and 12 cr after that before closing down.
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 3 –> 5 –> 3 –> 1
These are the three possibilities.
In 2015:
A raised 2 cr in 2015
B and D closed down in 2015. So, they must have raised 1 cr each that year.
We know C raised 3 cr in 2015.
E could have raised 0 or 1 cr in 2015
∴ Total amount raised in 2015 = 2+1+3+1+(0/1) = 7 or 8 cr

Correct Answer is C

 

Q8. What is the largest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised in 2013?

A. 11
B. 19
C. 10
D. 17

Explanation: 

- Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence
- The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down
- Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.

We will denote the 5 firms by A,B,C,D,E

A: Raised 1 cr in 2009 and 2016. In the 6 years in between, it raised 19 cr..
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 5 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 5 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1
These are the two possibilities.

B: Raised 1 cr each in 2012 and 2015

C: Raised 1 cr in 2013 and raised 8 cr more before closing down
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility.

D: raised 1 crore each in 2011 and 2015. In the 3 years between, it raised 8 cr
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility considering the constraints.

E: Raised 1 cr in 2010 and 12 cr after that before closing down.
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 3 –> 5 –> 3 –> 1
These are the three possibilities.
∴ The largest possible total amount of money that could have been raised in 2013 = 5(A) + 3(B) + 1(C) + 4(D) + 4(E) = 17 cr

Correct Answer is D

Q9. If Elavalaki raised Rs. 3 crores in 2013, then what is the smallest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised by all the companies in 2012?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

Explanation:

- Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence
- The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down
- Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.

We will denote the 5 firms by A,B,C,D,E

A: Raised 1 cr in 2009 and 2016. In the 6 years in between, it raised 19 cr..
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 5 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 5 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1
These are the two possibilities.

B: Raised 1 cr each in 2012 and 2015

C: Raised 1 cr in 2013 and raised 8 cr more before closing down
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility.

D: raised 1 crore each in 2011 and 2015. In the 3 years between, it raised 8 cr
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility considering the constraints.

E: Raised 1 cr in 2010 and 12 cr after that before closing down.
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 3 –> 5 –> 3 –> 1
These are the three possibilities.
According to this question, E raised 3 crore in 2013.
∴ Minimum possible total amount of money that could have been raised by all the companies in 2012 = 4(A) + 1(B) + 0(C) + 2(D) + 4(E) = 11 cr

Correct Answer is C

Q10. If the total amount of money raised in 2014 is Rs. 12 crores, then which of the following is not possible?

A. Bzygoo raised the same amount of money as Elavalaki in 2013.
B. Bzygoo raised more money than Elavalaki in 2014.
C. Alfloo raised the same amount of money as Drjbna in 2013.
D. Alfloo raised the same amount of money as Bzygoo in 2014.

Explanation:

- Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence
- The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down
- Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.

We will denote the 5 firms by A,B,C,D,E

A: Raised 1 cr in 2009 and 2016. In the 6 years in between, it raised 19 cr..
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 5 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 5 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1
These are the two possibilities.

B: Raised 1 cr each in 2012 and 2015

C: Raised 1 cr in 2013 and raised 8 cr more before closing down
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility.

D: raised 1 crore each in 2011 and 2015. In the 3 years between, it raised 8 cr
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1 is the only possibility considering the constraints.

E: Raised 1 cr in 2010 and 12 cr after that before closing down.
1 –> 2 –> 3 –> 4 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 2 –> 4 –> 3 –> 2 –> 1,
1 –> 3 –> 5 –> 3 –> 1
These are the three possibilities.
Acc. to the question, total money raised in 2014 = Rs. 12 cr i.e., 3(A), 3(B), 2(C), 2(D), 2(E)
E raised 3/4 cr in 2013
B can raise a maximum of 2 cr in 2013 as it has raised 3 cr in 2014 and the amount raised in two consecutive years cannot be the same.

∴ The first statement is false.

Correct Answer is A

Set 3

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.

  1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
  2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
  3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
  4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

Q11. What was the total amount spent on tickets (in Rs.) by Bipasha?

A. 100
B. 120
C. 110
D. 90

Explanation:

A,B,C visited an entertainment park - 4 rides
Ride 1,2,4 : 9 AM - 5 PM
Ride 3 : 9 AM - 1 PM
Ride gates open every 30 minutes, each ride lasts 1 hour.
Ticket prices: Ride 1 - Rs. 20, Ride 2 - Rs. 50, Ride 3 - Rs. 30, Ride 4 - Rs. 40
Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides.
None of them took the same ride more than once

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

C completed her visit by 11 AM after spending Rs. 50, and A waited for C to complete Ride 1 till 11 AM.
=> C took Ride 3 from 9-10 AM and Ride 1 from 10-11 AM

Since all 3 visitors incurred the same expense by 12:15 PM, that expense must be Rs. 50 as C had already taken all her rides by then.

Further, B began her first ride at 11:30 AM which would have gone till 12:30 PM, hence this ride must be Ride 2 which has Rs. 50 ticket.

Now, A would have taken Ride 3 from 12-1 PM as only then she would have spent 20+30 = Rs. 50 by 12:15 PM.

We have the following table now:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

∴ Total money spent by B = 20+50+40 = Rs. 110

Correct Answer is C

Q12. Which were all the rides that Anjali completed by 2:00 pm?

A. Ride-1 and Ride-4
B. Ride-1, Ride-2, and Ride-3
C. Ride-1, Ride-2, and Ride-4
D. Ride-1 and Ride-3

Explanation:

A,B,C visited an entertainment park - 4 rides
Ride 1,2,4 : 9 AM - 5 PM
Ride 3 : 9 AM - 1 PM
Ride gates open every 30 minutes, each ride lasts 1 hour.
Ticket prices: Ride 1 - Rs. 20, Ride 2 - Rs. 50, Ride 3 - Rs. 30, Ride 4 - Rs. 40
Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides.
None of them took the same ride more than once

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

C completed her visit by 11 AM after spending Rs. 50, and A waited for C to complete Ride 1 till 11 AM.
=> C took Ride 3 from 9-10 AM and Ride 1 from 10-11 AM

Since all 3 visitors incurred the same expense by 12:15 PM, that expense must be Rs. 50 as C had already taken all her rides by then.

Further, B began her first ride at 11:30 AM which would have gone till 12:30 PM, hence this ride must be Ride 2 which has Rs. 50 ticket.

Now, A would have taken Ride 3 from 12-1 PM as only then she would have spent 20+30 = Rs. 50 by 12:15 PM.

We have the following table now:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

∴ Anjali completed Ride 1, Ride 2 and Ride 3 by 2 PM

Correct Answer is B

Q13. Which ride was taken by all three visitors?

A. Ride-4
B. Ride-1
C. Ride-2
D. Ride-3

Explanation:

A,B,C visited an entertainment park - 4 rides
Ride 1,2,4 : 9 AM - 5 PM
Ride 3 : 9 AM - 1 PM
Ride gates open every 30 minutes, each ride lasts 1 hour.
Ticket prices: Ride 1 - Rs. 20, Ride 2 - Rs. 50, Ride 3 - Rs. 30, Ride 4 - Rs. 40
Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides.
None of them took the same ride more than once

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

C completed her visit by 11 AM after spending Rs. 50, and A waited for C to complete Ride 1 till 11 AM.
=> C took Ride 3 from 9-10 AM and Ride 1 from 10-11 AM

Since all 3 visitors incurred the same expense by 12:15 PM, that expense must be Rs. 50 as C had already taken all her rides by then.

Further, B began her first ride at 11:30 AM which would have gone till 12:30 PM, hence this ride must be Ride 2 which has Rs. 50 ticket.

Now, A would have taken Ride 3 from 12-1 PM as only then she would have spent 20+30 = Rs. 50 by 12:15 PM.

We have the following table now:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

∴ Ride 1 was taken by all 3 visitors.

Correct Answer is B

Q14. How many rides did Anjali and Chitra take in total?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Explanation:

A,B,C visited an entertainment park - 4 rides
Ride 1,2,4 : 9 AM - 5 PM
Ride 3 : 9 AM - 1 PM
Ride gates open every 30 minutes, each ride lasts 1 hour.
Ticket prices: Ride 1 - Rs. 20, Ride 2 - Rs. 50, Ride 3 - Rs. 30, Ride 4 - Rs. 40
Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides.
None of them took the same ride more than once

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

C completed her visit by 11 AM after spending Rs. 50, and A waited for C to complete Ride 1 till 11 AM.
=> C took Ride 3 from 9-10 AM and Ride 1 from 10-11 AM

Since all 3 visitors incurred the same expense by 12:15 PM, that expense must be Rs. 50 as C had already taken all her rides by then.

Further, B began her first ride at 11:30 AM which would have gone till 12:30 PM, hence this ride must be Ride 2 which has Rs. 50 ticket.

Now, A would have taken Ride 3 from 12-1 PM as only then she would have spent 20+30 = Rs. 50 by 12:15 PM.

We have the following table now:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

∴ Anjali and Chitra took 6 rides in total

Correct Answer is C

Q15. What was the total amount spent on tickets (in Rs.) by Anjali?

A. 100
B. 120
C. 140
D. 160

Explanation:

A,B,C visited an entertainment park - 4 rides
Ride 1,2,4 : 9 AM - 5 PM
Ride 3 : 9 AM - 1 PM
Ride gates open every 30 minutes, each ride lasts 1 hour.
Ticket prices: Ride 1 - Rs. 20, Ride 2 - Rs. 50, Ride 3 - Rs. 30, Ride 4 - Rs. 40
Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides.
None of them took the same ride more than once

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

C completed her visit by 11 AM after spending Rs. 50, and A waited for C to complete Ride 1 till 11 AM.
=> C took Ride 3 from 9-10 AM and Ride 1 from 10-11 AM

Since all 3 visitors incurred the same expense by 12:15 PM, that expense must be Rs. 50 as C had already taken all her rides by then.

Further, B began her first ride at 11:30 AM which would have gone till 12:30 PM, hence this ride must be Ride 2 which has Rs. 50 ticket.

Now, A would have taken Ride 3 from 12-1 PM as only then she would have spent 20+30 = Rs. 50 by 12:15 PM.

We have the following table now:

B took exactly 3 rides. She couldn’t have taken Ride 3 as she took her first ride till 12:30 PM and Ride 3 needs to be taken by 1 PM. Therefore, B took Rides 1,2,4.

The last ride taken by A and B are the same. It can only be Ride 4 as can be deduced from the above table.

Since A did not wait for any ride after Ride 1, she would taken Ride 2 right after Ride 1 at 1 PM and Ride 4 at 2 PM
B took Ride 1 from 12:30 to 1:30 PM followed by an hour’s break till 2:30 PM, followed by 30 mins of wait time for Ride 4 which was being taken by A. And finally, B took Ride 4 from 3-4 PM

The final table is shown below:

∴ Anjali spent a total of 20+50+30+40 = 140 on tickets

Correct Answer is C

 

Set 4

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

  1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
  2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
  3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

Q16. What is Akhil’s score on Day 1?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 5
D. 6

Explanation:

Since the total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4, and 2-day average for Day 4 is 16, it means that the total score on Day 3 and Day 4 was 16 each.

2-day average of Day 5 is 17
=> Day 5 total score is 34-16 = 18

2-day average of Day 3 is 15.5
=> Day 2 score is 31-16 = 15

2-day average of Day 2 is 15
=> Day 1 score is 30-15 = 15

C scores in multiples of 3.
=> C’s scores will be 3/6/9

C’s score on Day 2 is the unique highest score across the 5 days. => It must be 9

On Day 3. C’s rank is 1. His score must be 6 as it can’t be 9 because 9 comes only once in the competition. A and B have the same rank i.e., a score of 5 each.

C’s minimum score (3) is only on Day 1 => A also has a score of 3 on Day 4
Now, on Day 4, C must have scored 6. Hence, B must have scored 16-3-6 = 7

Given that B has the same score on Day 1 and 3 = 5
Hence, A must have scored 15-5-3 = 7

The final table looks like this:

∴ Akhil’s score on Day 1 is 7

Correct Answer is A

 

Q17. Who attains the maximum total score?

A. Chatur
B. Cannot be determined
C. Bimal
D. Akhil

Explanation:

Since the total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4, and 2-day average for Day 4 is 16, it means that the total score on Day 3 and Day 4 was 16 each.

2-day average of Day 5 is 17
=> Day 5 total score is 34-16 = 18

2-day average of Day 3 is 15.5
=> Day 2 score is 31-16 = 15

2-day average of Day 2 is 15
=> Day 1 score is 30-15 = 15

C scores in multiples of 3.
=> C’s scores will be 3/6/9

C’s score on Day 2 is the unique highest score across the 5 days. => It must be 9

On Day 3. C’s rank is 1. His score must be 6 as it can’t be 9 because 9 comes only once in the competition. A and B have the same rank i.e., a score of 5 each.

C’s minimum score (3) is only on Day 1 => A also has a score of 3 on Day 4
Now, on Day 4, C must have scored 6. Hence, B must have scored 16-3-6 = 7

Given that B has the same score on Day 1 and 3 = 5
Hence, A must have scored 15-5-3 = 7

The final table looks like this:

∴ The max total score is attained by Chatur (30)

Correct Answer is A

 

Q18. What is the minimum possible total score of Bimal?

A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 45

Explanation:

Since the total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4, and 2-day average for Day 4 is 16, it means that the total score on Day 3 and Day 4 was 16 each.

2-day average of Day 5 is 17
=> Day 5 total score is 34-16 = 18

2-day average of Day 3 is 15.5
=> Day 2 score is 31-16 = 15

2-day average of Day 2 is 15
=> Day 1 score is 30-15 = 15

C scores in multiples of 3.
=> C’s scores will be 3/6/9

C’s score on Day 2 is the unique highest score across the 5 days. => It must be 9

On Day 3. C’s rank is 1. His score must be 6 as it can’t be 9 because 9 comes only once in the competition. A and B have the same rank i.e., a score of 5 each.

C’s minimum score (3) is only on Day 1 => A also has a score of 3 on Day 4
Now, on Day 4, C must have scored 6. Hence, B must have scored 16-3-6 = 7

Given that B has the same score on Day 1 and 3 = 5
Hence, A must have scored 15-5-3 = 7

The final table looks like this:

∴ Minimum possible total score of Bimal is 5+1+5+7+7 = 25

Correct Answer is B

 

Q19. If the total score of Bimal is a multiple of 3, what is the score of Akhil on Day 2?

A. 5
B. 6
C. Cannot be determined
D. 4

Explanation:

Since the total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4, and 2-day average for Day 4 is 16, it means that the total score on Day 3 and Day 4 was 16 each.

2-day average of Day 5 is 17
=> Day 5 total score is 34-16 = 18

2-day average of Day 3 is 15.5
=> Day 2 score is 31-16 = 15

2-day average of Day 2 is 15
=> Day 1 score is 30-15 = 15

C scores in multiples of 3.
=> C’s scores will be 3/6/9

C’s score on Day 2 is the unique highest score across the 5 days. => It must be 9

On Day 3. C’s rank is 1. His score must be 6 as it can’t be 9 because 9 comes only once in the competition. A and B have the same rank i.e., a score of 5 each.

C’s minimum score (3) is only on Day 1 => A also has a score of 3 on Day 4
Now, on Day 4, C must have scored 6. Hence, B must have scored 16-3-6 = 7

Given that B has the same score on Day 1 and 3 = 5
Hence, A must have scored 15-5-3 = 7

The final table looks like this:

Total score of Bimal is a multiple of 3 => 5+2+5+7+8
∴ Akhil’s score on Day 2 = 4

Correct Answer is D

 

Q20. If Akhil attains a total score of 24, then what is the total score of Bimal?

A. 12
B. 18
C. 22
D. 26

Explanation:

Since the total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4, and 2-day average for Day 4 is 16, it means that the total score on Day 3 and Day 4 was 16 each.
2-day average of Day 5 is 17
=> Day 5 total score is 34-16 = 18
2-day average of Day 3 is 15.5
=> Day 2 score is 31-16 = 15
2-day average of Day 2 is 15
=> Day 1 score is 30-15 = 15
C scores in multiples of 3.
=> C’s scores will be 3/6/9
C’s score on Day 2 is the unique highest score across the 5 days. => It must be 9
On Day 3. C’s rank is 1. His score must be 6 as it can’t be 9 because 9 comes only once in the competition. A and B have the same rank i.e., a score of 5 each.
C’s minimum score (3) is only on Day 1 => A also has a score of 3 on Day 4
Now, on Day 4, C must have scored 6. Hence, B must have scored 16-3-6 = 7
Given that B has the same score on Day 1 and 3 = 5
Hence, A must have scored 15-5-3 = 7
The final table looks like this:

Bimal’s total score will always be 26 in both the cases.

Correct Answer is D

 

CAT 2023 SLOT 1 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Solution

Q1.

A. 3
B. 5/2
C. 1/2
D. 3/2

Explanation:

Correct Answer is C

Q2.

A. 580
B. 579
C. 290
D. 289

Explanation:

Q3. For any natural numbers m, n, and k, such that k divides both m+2n and 3m + 4n, k must be a common divisor of

A. 2m and n
B. m and 2n
C. m and n
D. 2m and 3n

Explanation:

n, m, k are natural numbers
Given, k divides m+2n
=> k will divide 2(m+2n) = 2m+4n, 3(m+2n) = 3m+6n,....
Given, k divides 3m+4n
=> k will divide (3m+4n) - (2m+4n) = m
And, k will divide (3m+6n) - (3m+4n) = 2n
∴ k is a common divisor of m and 2n

Correct Answer is B

Q4.

A. x/y<y/x

B. If y < 0, then – x < y

C. If x < 0, then – x < y

D. D If z < 10, then – x > y

Explanation:

Non-zero real numbers x and y, y ≠ 3
x/y < (x+3)/(y-3)
=> x/y - (x+3)/(y-3) < 0
=> (xy-3x-xy-3y)/y(y-3) < 0
=> -3(x+y)/y(y-3) < 0
=> (x+y)/y(y-3) > 0

Option D: If y > 10, the denominator will be +ve
For the overall to be +ve, the numerator should also be +ve
=> x+y > 0
=> x > -y
∴ Op D is wrong

Option B: If y < 0, denominator will become +ve (-ve x -ve = +ve)
For the overall to be +ve, the numerator should also be +ve
=> x+y > 0
=> -x < y
∴ Op B is correct

Correct Answer is B

Q5. The number of positive integers less than 50, having exactly two distinct factors other than 1 and itself, is

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Explanation:

Total 4 factors
We know that the number of factors of a number prime factorized as ax.by… is (x+1)(y+1)..
4 = 4 or 2*2 i.e., (3+1) or (1+1)(1+1)
=> 23, 33, 2*3/5/7/11/13/17/19/23, 3*5/7/11/13, 5*7
∴ Total = 1+1+8+4+1 = 15

Correct Answer is C

Q6.

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

Explanation:

Q7.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

Explanation:

Q8. The price of a precious stone is directly proportional to the square of its weight. Sita has a precious stone weighing 18 units. If she breaks it into four pieces with each piece having distinct integer weight, then the difference between the highest and lowest possible values of the total price of the four pieces will be 288000. Then, the price of the original precious stone is

A. 1620000
B. 1944000
C. 1296000
D. 972000

Explanation:

Q9.Minu purchases a pair of sunglasses at Rs.1000 and sells to Kanu at 20% profit. Then, Kanu sells it back to Minu at 20% loss. Finally, Minu sells the same pair of sunglasses to Tanu. If the total profit made by Minu from all her transactions is Rs.500, then the percentage of profit made by Minu when she sold the pair of sunglasses to Tanu is

A. 31.25%
B. 52%
C. 26%
D. 35.42%

Explanation:

CP1 for Minu = 1000
SP for Minu = CP for Kanu = 1200
CP2 for Minu = 0.8*1200 = 960
Minu’s total profit = 500, and 200 of which was made by selling to Kanu
=> Minu made a profit of 300 while selling sunglasses to Tanu
∴ Profit made by Minu on selling sunglasses to Tanu = (300/960) x 100 = 31.25%

Correct Answer is A

Q10. Ravi is driving at a speed of 40 km/h on a road. Vijay is 54 meters behind Ravi and driving in the same direction as Ravi. Ashok is driving along the same road from the opposite direction at a speed of 50 km/h and is 225 meters away from Ravi. The speed, in km/h, at which Vijay should drive so that all the three cross each other at the same time, is

A. 61.6
B. 58.8
C. 67.2
D. 64.4

Explanation:

 

Q11. In a company, 20% of the employees work in the manufacturing department. If the total salary obtained by all the manufacturing employees is one-sixth of the total salary obtained by all the employees in the company, then the ratio of the average salary obtained by the manufacturing employees to the average salary obtained by the nonmanufacturing employees is

A. 6 : 5
B. 5 : 4
C. 4 : 5
D. 5 : 6

Explanation:

Let there be total 10x employees
2x work in manufacturing
Total salary of manufacturing employees = y (Total salary of all employees = 6y)
Avg salary obtained by manufacturing employees = y/2x
Avg salary obtained by non-manufacturing employees = 5y/8x
∴ Required ratio = (y/2x): (5y/8x) = 4: 5

Correct Answer is C

Q12. Pipes A and C are fill pipes while Pipe B is a drain pipe of a tank. Pipe B empties the full tank in one hour less than the time taken by Pipe A to fill the empty tank. When pipes A, B and C are turned on together, the empty tank is filled in two hours. If pipes B and C are turned on together when the tank is empty and Pipe B is turned off after one hour, then Pipe C takes another one hour and 15 minutes to fill the remaining tank. If Pipe A can fill the empty tank in less than five hours, then the time taken, in minutes, by Pipe C to fill the empty tank is

A. 60
B. 75
C. 120
D. 90

Explanation:

Q13. Anil borrows Rs 2 lakhs at an interest rate of 8% per annum, compounded half-yearly. He repays Rs 10320 at the end of the first year and closes the loan by paying the outstanding amount at the end of the third year. Then, the total interest, in rupees, paid over the three years is nearest to

A. 40991
B. 45311
C. 51311
D. 33130

Explanation:

Q14. A container has 40 liters of milk. Then, 4 liters are removed from the container and replaced with 4 liters of water. This process of replacing 4 liters of the liquid in the container with an equal volume of water is continued repeatedly. The smallest number of times of doing this process, after which the volume of milk in the container becomes less than that of water, is

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7

Explanation:

 

Q15. Jayant bought a certain number of white shirts at the rate of Rs 1000 per piece and a certain number of blue shirts at the rate of Rs 1125 per piece. For each shirt, he then set a fixed market price which was 25% higher than the average cost of all the shirts. He sold all the shirts at a discount of 10% and made a total profit of Rs 51000. If he bought both colors of shirts, then the maximum possible total number of shirts that he could have bought is

A. 198
B. 379
C. 407
D. 782

Explanation:

White → w shirts, Rs. 1000
Blue → b shirts, Rs. 1125
Avg cost of all shirts = (1000w+1125b)/(w+b)
SP of each shirt = 1.25*0.9*(1000w+1125b)/(w+b) = 1.125(1000w+1125b)/(w+b)
Total profit = 51000
1.125(1000w+1125b) - (1000w+1125b) = 51000
=> 1000w+1125b = 408000
=> 8w+9b = 3264
For w+b to be max, b should be minimum so that w becomes maximum
Since 3264 is a multiple of 8, b should also be a multiple of 8 so that w comes out to be a natural number.
b = 8
=> 8w = 3264-72 = 3192
=> w = 3192/8 = 399
∴ (b+w)max = 8+399 = 407

Correct Answer is C

Q16. If a certain amount of money is divided equally among n persons, each one receives Rs 352. However, If two persons receive Rs 506 each and the remaining amount is divided equally among the others persons, each of them received less than or equal to Rs 330. Then, the maximum possible value of n is

A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 20

Explanation:

Q17. A triangle is drawn with its vertices on the circle C such that one of its sides is a diameter of C and the other two sides have their lengths in the ratio a:b. If the radius of the circle is r, then the area of the triangle is

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Explanation:

Q18. In a rectangle ABCD, AB = 9 cm and BC = 6 cm. P and Q are two points on BC such that the areas of the figures ABP, APQ, and AQCD are in geometric progression. If the area of the figure AQCD is four times the area of triangle ABP, then BP : PQ : QC is

A. 1 : 2 : 4
B. 1 : 1 : 2
C. 2 : 4 : 1
D. 1 : 2 : 1

Explanation:

Q19. The area of the quadrilateral bounded by the Y-axis, the line x=5, and the lines |x−y|−|x−5|=2, is

A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 55

Explanation:

We have to find the area bounded by Y-axis (x = 0), x = 5, and |x-y| - |x-5| = 2
For 0 < x < 5, |x-5| = -x+5
=> |x-y| = 2-x+5 = 7-x
i.e., x-y = 7-x
=> 2x - y = 7
And y-x = 7-x
=> y = 7

Area of the trapezium = ½(sum of parallel sides)*height
= ½(4+14)5
= 45
Correct Answer is C

Q20. Let both the series a1,a2,a3,…and b1,b2,b3…be in arithmetic progression such that the common differences of both the series are prime numbers. If a5=b9,a19=b19 and b2=0, then a11 equals

A. 79
B. 84
C. 83
D. 86

Explanation:

Q21.

A. 189
B. 486
C. 378
D. 243

Explanation:

Q22. Let an and bn be two sequences such that an=13+6(n−1) and bn=15+7(n−1)for all natural numbers n. Then, the largest three digit integer that is common to both these sequences, is

A. 849
B. 967
C. 128
D. 498

Explanation:

CAT 2024

Indrajeet Singh
Indrajeet Singhhttps://www.iquanta.in/
The mastermind behind IQuanta, Indrajeet Singh is an expert in Quant and has devised some ingenious formulae and shortcuts to significantly cut down on the time taken to solve a problem

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