iQuanta provides you with the past year CAT papers.The CAT 2023 Slot 3 question papers along with detailed solutions are presented here.
~Instructions~
- Set a time limit of 120 minutes, dividing it into 40 minutes for each section: VARC, DILR and QUANTS.
- Attempt the questions as if you were in the actual exam, and afterward, check the solutions to understand and improve your performance.
CAT 2023 Slot 3 VARC Question Paper With Solution
Reading Comprehension 1
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
The biggest challenge [The Nutmeg’s Curse by Ghosh] throws down is to the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th .
Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He [starts] the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today’s Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a ‘resource’ to exploit. . . .
We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, canal cutting – in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses – has brought us repeated disasters . . . Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word ‘curse’ in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. I use the pronoun ‘who’ knowingly, because Ghosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum.
As Ghosh’s text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, biology have dominated global intellectual discourse. . . .
There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg’s Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy – not only for oil-exporting countries, but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.
Q1. All of the following can be inferred from the reviewer’s discussion of “The Nutmeg’s Curse”, EXCEPT:
A. academic discourses have always served the function of raising awareness about environmental preservation.
B. the contemporary dominant perception of nature and the environment was put in place by processes of colonialism.
C. the history of climate change is deeply intertwined with the history of colonialism.
D. environmental preservation policy makers can learn a lot from non-European and/or pre-colonial societies.
Solution
Explanation:
Reviewing the reviewer's discussion of "The Nutmeg's Curse," let's analyze each option:
Option 1. The passage doesn't specifically state that academic discourses have always been about raising awareness for environmental preservation. Instead, it discusses how European colonialists and their backers dominated global intellectual discourse, often exploiting the Earth and overlooking indigenous understandings of human-Earth relationships. The text indicates that while there have been challenges to this view, it doesn't imply that academic discourses have universally focused on environmental preservation. Therefore, this statement is the one that can be considered not inferable from the given passage, making it the correct answer.
Option 2. It's evident from the review that the contemporary dominant perception of nature as a 'resource' to exploit is deeply connected to colonial practices. The text illustrates how colonialists decimated indigenous populations and their understandings of the Earth, shifting the view of nature towards exploitation. This is a key theme of the book as described in the passage and can be inferred as accurate.
Option 3. The history of climate change is described as extending back to the beginning of European colonialism, with the author of "The Nutmeg's Curse" attributing early environmental degradation and climate issues to these historical practices. The passage makes a direct link between the history of colonialism and climate change, suggesting this is a core argument of the book.
Option 4. The passage indicates that there are valuable alternative views to the dominant narrative, specifically mentioning non-European perspectives like that of Pachamama from Latin America. It suggests that policymakers and others could learn from these perspectives, particularly in the context of global climate negotiations and broader environmental understanding.
From this analysis, option 1 stands out as the statement that cannot be inferred from the reviewer's discussion of "The Nutmeg's Curse." While the other options align with the themes and arguments presented in the passage, the claim that academic discourses have always focused on raising environmental awareness overstates the text's content and is not supported by the provided details.
Correct Answer is A
Q2. Which one of the following, if true, would make the reviewer’s choice of the pronoun “who” for Gaia inappropriate?
A. Ghosh’s book has a different title: “The Nutmeg’s Revenge”.
B. Modern western science discovers new evidence for the Earth being an inanimate object.
C. There is a direct cause–effect relationship between human activities and global climate change.
D. Non-European societies have perceived the Earth as a non-living source of all resources.
Solution
Explanation:
The reviewer uses the pronoun "who" for Gaia to personify the Earth, reflecting the non-European perspectives that view the Earth as a living entity with agency, as opposed to an inert object. Let's examine which option, if true, would make this choice of pronoun inappropriate:
Option 1. Changing the title of Ghosh's book to "The Nutmeg’s Revenge" does not inherently affect the thematic content of the book or the appropriateness of personifying Earth. The title change alone doesn't impact the notion of Earth as a living entity or otherwise.
Option 2. If modern western science discovers new evidence for the Earth being an inanimate object, this could potentially challenge the perspective of Earth as a living entity with agency. This discovery would lend credence to the view of Earth as an inert object, thus making the use of the pronoun "who" less appropriate for Gaia.
Option 3. The existence of a direct cause-effect relationship between human activities and global climate change doesn't negate the personification of the Earth. This option is more about the impact of human actions on the environment and doesn't directly address the Earth's agency or living status.
Option 4. If it were true that non-European societies perceived the Earth as a non-living source of all resources, this would directly contradict the basis for using "who" as a pronoun for Gaia. The personification is based on the idea that non-European and indigenous perspectives often see the Earth as a living, sentient entity. If these societies viewed the Earth as non-living, it would undermine the rationale for using a personal pronoun, making it inappropriate.
Considering the implications of each option, option 4 would make the reviewer's choice of the pronoun "who" for Gaia inappropriate if it were true. It directly challenges the personification of the Earth, which is central to the argument about different cultural perspectives on the Earth's nature. If non-European societies viewed Earth as an inanimate object, the basis for referring to it with a personal pronoun would be significantly weakened.
Correct Answer is D
Q3. Which one of the following best explains the primary purpose of the discussion of the colonisation of the Banda islands in “The Nutmeg’s Curse”?
A. To illustrate how colonialism represented and perpetuated the mindset that has led to climate change.
B. To illustrate the first instance in history when the processes responsible for climate change were initiated.
C. To illustrate how systemic violence against the colonised constituted the cornerstone of colonialism.
D. To illustrate the role played by the cultivation of certain crops in the plantation mode in contributing to climate change.
Solution
Explanation:
In "The Nutmeg's Curse," the colonization of the Banda islands is discussed as a significant historical event that reflects the broader implications of colonialism on the environment and climate change. The primary purpose of this discussion appears to be:
Option 1: The passage suggests that the colonization and subsequent exploitation of the Banda islands exemplify the destructive mindset and practices introduced by colonialism. This mindset, characterized by the systematic exploitation of natural resources and disregard for indigenous knowledge and relationships with the Earth, has contributed to the current climate crisis. The author uses this historical event to illustrate the long-term impacts of colonial attitudes and practices on the environment, making this the most fitting explanation for the primary purpose of the discussion.
The other options, while they touch upon aspects of the event or broader themes in the book, do not encapsulate the primary purpose as directly and comprehensively as option 1 does in relation to the passage's content. The colonization of the Banda islands serves as a critical example in the narrative to illustrate the deep-rooted and far-reaching consequences of the colonialist mindset on climate and environmental degradation.
Correct Answer is A
Q4. On the basis of information in the passage, which one of the following is NOT a reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change?
A. The decentralised characteristic of renewable energy resources like solar power.
B. The marginalised status of non-European ways of looking at nature and the environment.
C. The greed of organisations benefiting from non-renewable energy resources.
D. The global dominance of oil economies and international politics built around it.
Solution
Explanation:
Based on the passage, let's examine each option as a potential reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change:
Option 1: The passage discusses how power utilities are sabotaging decentralized solar power generation because it affects their revenues and control. However, the decentralized characteristic of renewable energy like solar power isn't itself cited as a reason for policy failure; rather, the resistance from existing power structures is. The decentralization of renewable energy is typically seen as a beneficial aspect for promoting sustainability and reducing reliance on centralized power systems. Thus, this option is not presented as a reason for policy failure in the passage.
Option 2: The passage clearly states that non-European perspectives, such as viewing the Earth as Pachamama, are often marginalized in global climate negotiations. This marginalization could lead to the failure of policies as it results in a narrow approach that doesn't fully incorporate diverse understandings and respects for nature, which are crucial for effective climate action. Therefore, this is identified as a reason contributing to policy failure.
Option 3: The greed of organizations benefiting from non-renewable energy resources is mentioned as a factor in the passage. It talks about how vested interests in the oil economy and the actions of power utilities to sabotage decentralized solar power generation due to its impact on their revenues. This greed and protection of vested interests are presented as significant obstacles to effective climate change policies.
Option 4: The global dominance of oil economies and the politics surrounding it are discussed as major barriers. The passage explains that this dominance extends not just to oil-exporting countries but also to superpowers like the US that control oil drilling, prices, and movement. The entrenched interests and control in the oil economy are portrayed as significant impediments to transitioning toward sustainable energy and addressing climate change effectively.
Based on the discussion in the passage, Option 1 is NOT presented as a reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change. While the other options are indicated as barriers or reasons for the failure of climate change policies, the decentralized nature of renewable energy such as solar power is not itself portrayed as a reason for policy failure; instead, the resistance and sabotage by those benefiting from the status quo are.
Correct Answer is A
Reading Comprehension 2
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
Steven Pinker’s new book, “Rationality: What It Is, Why It Seems Scarce, Why It Matters,” offers a pragmatic dose of measured optimism, presenting rationality as a fragile but achievable ideal in personal and civic life. . . . Pinker’s ambition to illuminate such a crucial topic offers the welcome prospect of a return to sanity. . . . It’s no small achievement to make formal logic, game theory, statistics and Bayesian reasoning delightful topics full of charm and relevance.
It’s also plausible to believe that a wider application of the rational tools he analyzes would improve the world in important ways. His primer on statistics and scientific uncertainty is particularly timely and should be required reading before consuming any news about the [COVID] pandemic. More broadly, he argues that less media coverage of shocking but vanishingly rare events, from shark attacks to adverse vaccine reactions, would help prevent dangerous overreactions, fatalism and the diversion of finite resources away from solvable but less-dramatic issues, like malnutrition in the developing world.
It’s a reasonable critique, and Pinker is not the first to make it. But analyzing the political economy of journalism — its funding structures, ownership concentration and increasing reliance on social media shares — would have given a fuller picture of why so much coverage is so misguided and what we might do about it.
Pinker’s main focus is the sort of conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. Skill in this domain maps directly onto the navigation of many real-world problems, and Pinker shows how greater mastery of the tools of rationality can improve decision-making in medical, legal, financial and many other contexts in which we must act on uncertain and shifting information. . . .
Despite the undeniable power of the sort of rationality he describes, many of the deepest insights in the history of science, math, music and art strike their originators in moments of epiphany. From the 19th-century chemist Friedrich August Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene to any of Mozart’s symphonies, much extraordinary human achievement is not a product of conscious, sequential reasoning. Even Plato’s Socrates — who anticipated many of Pinker’s points by nearly 2,500 years, showing the virtue of knowing what you do not know and examining all premises in arguments, not simply trusting speakers’ authority or charisma — attributed many of his most profound insights to dreams and visions. Conscious reasoning is helpful in sorting the wheat from the chaff, but it would be interesting to consider the hidden aquifers that make much of the grain grow in the first place.
The role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior is also underexplored. Pinker recognizes that rationality “is not just a cognitive virtue but a moral one.” But this profoundly important point, one subtly explored by ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle, doesn’t really get developed. This is a shame, since possessing the right sort of moral character is arguably a precondition for using rationality in beneficial ways.
Q5. The author endorses Pinker’s views on the importance of logical reasoning as it:
A. helps people to gain expertise in statistics and other scientific disciplines.
B. equips people with the ability to tackle challenging practical problems.
C. provides a moral compass for resolving important ethical dilemmas.
D. focuses public attention on real issues like development rather than sensational events.
Solution
Explanation:
The author endorses Pinker's views on the importance of logical reasoning because it equips people with the ability to tackle challenging practical problems. This is derived from the passage where Pinker's main focus is described as conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. This type of skill is directly applied to navigating many real-world issues, as Pinker illustrates how a greater mastery of rationality can improve decision-making across various fields, including medical, legal, and financial contexts.
The other options, while they may have some merit, are not directly supported by the passage. Option 1 is too narrow, focusing only on statistics and scientific disciplines, and doesn't encompass the broader application of logical reasoning in various aspects of life as suggested by the passage. Option 3 suggests that logical reasoning provides a moral compass for ethical dilemmas, but the passage indicates that this aspect of rationality is underexplored in Pinker's work. Option 4, about focusing public attention away from sensational events, is a result of applying rational thought, but it's not the primary reason the author endorses Pinker's views; it's more of an outcome of rationality rather than its fundamental importance.
Correct Answer is B
Q6. According to the author, for Pinker as well as the ancient Greek philosophers, rational thinking involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A. the primacy of conscious sequential reasoning as the basis for seminal human achievements.
B. arriving at independent conclusions irrespective of who is presenting the argument.
C. the belief that the ability to reason logically encompasses an ethical and moral dimension.
D. an awareness of underlying assumptions in an argument and gaps in one’s own knowledge.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct because the author suggests that Pinker, along with ancient Greek philosophers, does not view conscious sequential reasoning as the sole basis for seminal human achievements. The passage acknowledges the role of intuition and moments of epiphany in major scientific and artistic discoveries, such as Kekulé's discovery of the structure of benzene and Mozart's symphonies. This indicates that significant intellectual and creative breakthroughs can also come from beyond structured, logical reasoning.
The other options are not correct because they are consistent with Pinker's and the Greek philosophers' views on rational thought:
- Option 2 discusses arriving at independent conclusions without being swayed by the presenter, which is in line with the critical thinking aspect of rationality both Pinker and the philosophers endorse.
- Option 3 addresses the ethical and moral dimensions of logical reasoning, which Pinker acknowledges as part of rationality, although the passage notes this aspect is not fully developed in his work.
- Option 4 involves an awareness of one’s own knowledge limitations and the assumptions present in arguments, which is a critical component of Socratic thinking and is also embraced by Pinker’s focus on rationality.
Correct Answer is A
Q7. The author refers to the ancient Greek philosophers to:
A. highlight the influence of their thinking on the development of Pinker’s arguments.
B. indicate the various similarities between their thinking and Pinker’s conclusions.
C. reveal gaps in Pinker’s discussion of the importance of ethical considerations in rational behaviour.
D. show how dreams and visions have for centuries influenced subconscious behaviour and pathbreaking inventions.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 3 is the correct choice because the author uses the reference to ancient Greek philosophers to point out what Pinker's discussion lacks. The passage notes that while Pinker acknowledges the moral dimension of rationality, he doesn't delve deeply into the role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior, which is something the ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle explored extensively. The author implies that this is an oversight in Pinker's work, suggesting that the development of moral character is crucial for the beneficial application of rationality.
The other options are not correct because:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not explicitly state that Pinker’s arguments were influenced by ancient Greek philosophers; it simply draws a comparison.
- Option 2 is incorrect because it suggests that the passage is making a direct comparison between the thinking of Pinker and that of the Greek philosophers, which it does not do beyond noting the underdevelopment of the ethical dimension in Pinker’s work.
- Option 4 is incorrect because the reference to dreams and visions is used to illustrate that significant achievements can arise from non-rational sources, not necessarily to show the influence of subconscious behavior on inventions throughout history.
Correct Answer is C
Q8.The author mentions Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene and Mozart’s symphonies to illustrate the point that:
A. great innovations across various fields can stem from flashes of intuition and are not always propelled by logical thinking.
B. unlike the sciences, human achievements in other fields are a mix of logical reasoning and spontaneous epiphanies.
C. it is not just the creative arts, but also scientific fields that have benefitted from flashes of creativity.
D. Pinker’s conclusions on sequential reasoning are belied by European achievements which, in the past, were more rooted in unconscious bursts of genius.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 1 is the correct choice. The author uses the examples of Kekulé and Mozart to emphasize that great innovations are not exclusively the result of conscious, sequential reasoning but can also come from intuitive insights. Kekulé's scientific discovery and Mozart's musical compositions serve as evidence that flashes of intuition play a significant role in creative and scientific processes alike.
The other options are not supported by the passage:
- Option 2 is incorrect because the author does not make a distinction between the sciences and other fields regarding the source of human achievements; instead, the point is made across various fields.
- Option 3, while it acknowledges the role of creativity in scientific fields, does not encompass the full argument about intuition versus logical reasoning made in the passage.
- Option 4 is incorrect because it suggests a contradiction in Pinker's reasoning based on historical achievements, which the passage does not directly argue. The author does not claim that Pinker's conclusions are refuted by past achievements but simply highlights the existence of other forms of reasoning contributing to great innovations.
Correct Answer is A
Reading Comprehension 3
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
In 2006, the Met [art museum in the US] agreed to return the Euphronios krater, a masterpiece Greek urn that had been a museum draw since 1972. In 2007, the Getty [art museum in the US] agreed to return 40 objects to Italy, including a marble Aphrodite, in the midst of looting scandals. And in December, Sotheby’s and a private owner agreed to return an ancient Khmer statue of a warrior, pulled from auction two years before, to Cambodia.
Cultural property, or patrimony, laws limit the transfer of cultural property outside the source country’s territory, including outright export prohibitions and national ownership laws. Most art historians, archaeologists, museum officials and policymakers portray cultural property laws in general as invaluable tools for counteracting the ugly legacy of Western cultural imperialism.
During the late 19th and early 20th century — an era former Met director Thomas Hoving called “the age of piracy” — American and European art museums acquired antiquities by hook or by crook, from grave robbers or souvenir collectors, bounty from digs and ancient sites in impoverished but art-rich source countries. Patrimony laws were intended to protect future archaeological discoveries against Western imperialist designs. . . .
I surveyed 90 countries with one or more archaeological sites on UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, and my study shows that in most cases the number of discovered sites diminishes sharply after a country passes a cultural property law. There are 222 archaeological sites listed for those 90 countries. When you look into the history of the sites, you see that all but 21 were discovered before the passage of cultural property laws. . . .
Strict cultural patrimony laws are popular in most countries. But the downside may be that they reduce incentives for foreign governments, nongovernmental organizations and educational institutions to invest in overseas exploration because their efforts will not necessarily be rewarded by opportunities to hold, display and study what is uncovered. To the extent that source countries can fund their own archaeological projects, artifacts and sites may still be discovered. . . . The survey has far-reaching implications. It suggests that source countries, particularly in the developing world, should narrow their cultural property laws so that they can reap the benefits of new archaeological discoveries, which typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride. This does not mean these nations should abolish restrictions on foreign excavation and foreign claims to artifacts.
China provides an interesting alternative approach for source nations eager for foreign archaeological investment. From 1935 to 2003, China had a restrictive cultural property law that prohibited foreign ownership of Chinese cultural artifacts. In those years, China’s most significant archaeological discovery occurred by chance, in 1974, when peasant farmers accidentally uncovered ranks of buried terra cotta warriors, which are part of Emperor Qin’s spectacular tomb system.
In 2003, the Chinese government switched course, dropping its cultural property law and embracing collaborative international archaeological research. Since then, China has nominated 11 archaeological sites for inclusion in the World Heritage Site list, including eight in 2013, the most ever for China.
Q9. It can be inferred from the passage that archaeological sites are considered important by some source countries because they:
A. are a symbol of Western imperialism.
B. generate funds for future discoveries.
C. give a boost to the tourism sector.
D. are subject to strict patrimony laws.
Solution
Explanation:
It can be inferred from the passage that archaeological sites are considered important by some source countries because they give a boost to the tourism sector. The passage suggests that new archaeological discoveries typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride, which is beneficial to the source countries, especially those in the developing world. This aligns with the idea that the identification and preservation of these sites can have positive economic and cultural impacts, as tourists are often drawn to countries with rich archaeological and historical attractions.
The other options are not correct inferences based on the passage:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the sites themselves are not symbols of Western imperialism; rather, the manner in which artifacts were acquired during the "age of piracy" reflects Western cultural imperialism.
- Option 2 is incorrect because, while funds might be necessary for archaeological work, the passage does not explicitly state that the sites themselves generate these funds.
- Option 4 is incorrect because the passage argues that strict patrimony laws may actually inhibit the discovery and reporting of new sites, rather than being a reason for their importance.
Correct Answer is C
Q10. Which one of the following statements, if true, would undermine the central idea of the passage?
A. Museums established in economically deprived archaeologically-rich source countries can display the antiques discovered there.
B. Western countries will have to apologise to countries for looting their cultural property in the past century.
C. UNESCO finances archaeological research in poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries.
D. Affluent archaeologically-rich source countries can afford to carry out their own excavations.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 3 is correct because it directly challenges the central idea of the passage that strict cultural patrimony laws may inadvertently reduce the discovery of new archaeological sites by diminishing incentives for foreign archaeological investment. If UNESCO finances archaeological research in poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries, this external funding could mitigate the negative impacts of strict patrimony laws by providing necessary resources and support for continued archaeological exploration and discovery. This would allow more discoveries to occur despite the strict laws, thus undermining the passage's argument that strict laws reduce the number of new discoveries and suggesting that effective preservation and exploration can coexist with external support.
The other options do not effectively undermine the passage's central idea:
- Option 1 suggests that local museums can display artifacts, which aligns with the goals of patrimony laws and doesn't necessarily contradict the issues arising from strict laws inhibiting new discoveries.
- Option 2 addresses historical accountability but doesn't directly impact the current efficacy of cultural patrimony laws in promoting discoveries.
- Option 4 indicates that some countries might independently fund excavations, which doesn't address the broader issue of how strict laws impact international collaborations and discoveries.
Correct Answer is C
Q11. From the passage we can infer that the author is likely to advise poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries to do all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. to find ways to motivate other countries to finance archaeological explorations in their country.
B. allow foreign countries to analyse and exhibit the archaeological finds made in the source country.
C. fund institutes in other countries to undertake archaeological exploration in the source country reaping the benefits of cutting-edge techniques.
D. adopt China’s strategy of dropping its cultural property laws and carrying out archaeological research through international collaboration.
Solution
Explanation:
The passage suggests that source countries benefit from easing strict patrimony laws to allow more discoveries and international collaboration. It highlights the importance of foreign investment and the potential advantages of collaborative archaeological efforts. However, advising source countries to fund institutes in other countries to undertake archaeological exploration in the source country (Option 3) seems less feasible or practical, especially for "poor" countries. The focus in the passage is more on how to make archaeological exploration attractive and beneficial to source countries while protecting their cultural heritage, not necessarily on investing their limited resources abroad.
The other options are more aligned with the inferred advice based on the passage:
- Option 1 about motivating other countries to finance explorations aligns with the idea of increasing archaeological discoveries and international investment.
- Option 2 suggests allowing foreign analysis and exhibition, which could be part of a collaborative approach to archaeology.
- Option 4 refers to adopting China's strategy post-2003 for more international collaboration and research, which seems in line with the passage's suggestions for more open and beneficial archaeological practices. However, the author doesn't explicitly recommend completely dropping all cultural property laws, but rather easing them to a more balanced approach.
Correct Answer is C
Q12. Which one of the following statements best expresses the paradox of patrimony laws?
A. They were intended to protect cultural property, but instead resulted in the withholding of national treasure from museums.
B. They were aimed at protecting cultural property, but instead reduced business for auctioneers like Sotheby’s.
C. They were intended to protect cultural property, but instead resulted in the neglect of historical sites.
D. They were aimed at protecting cultural property, but instead reduced new archaeological discoveries.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 4 best expresses the paradox of patrimony laws as discussed in the passage. These laws were intended to protect cultural property from being looted and exported, thus preserving a country's historical and cultural heritage. However, the passage suggests that an unintended consequence of these strict laws is a reduction in new archaeological discoveries. This reduction is due to diminished incentives for foreign investment and collaboration in archaeological exploration. This paradox highlights the conflict between the intent of preserving cultural heritage and the unintended stifling of new discoveries that could enrich our understanding of history and culture.
The other options don't capture the paradox as directly or are less supported by the passage:
- Option 1 mentions the withholding of national treasure from museums, but the central paradox discussed in the passage is not about withholding from museums but about the overall reduction in discoveries.
- Option 2 focuses on the business impact on auctioneers, which, while possibly true, is not the central focus of the paradox discussed in the passage.
- Option 3 talks about the neglect of historical sites, which is a concern but not the primary unintended consequence highlighted in the passage. The main issue is the decrease in discoveries, not necessarily the neglect of sites that are already known.
Correct Answer is D
Reading Comprehension 4
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
Understanding romantic aesthetics is not a simple undertaking for reasons that are internal to the nature of the subject. Distinguished scholars, such as Arthur Lovejoy, Northrop Frye and Isaiah Berlin, have remarked on the notorious challenges facing any attempt to define romanticism. Lovejoy, for example, claimed that romanticism is “the scandal of literary history and criticism” . . . The main difficulty in studying the romantics, according to him, is the lack of any “single real entity, or type of entity” that the concept “romanticism” designates. Lovejoy concluded, “the word ‘romantic’ has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing” . . .
The more specific task of characterizing romantic aesthetics adds to these difficulties an air of paradox. Conventionally, “aesthetics” refers to a theory concerning beauty and art or the branch of philosophy that studies these topics. However, many of the romantics rejected the identification of aesthetics with a circumscribed domain of human life that is separated from the practical and theoretical domains of life. The most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life. Being fundamental to human existence, beauty and art should be a central ingredient not only in a philosophical or artistic life, but also in the lives of ordinary men and women. Another challenge for any attempt to characterize romantic aesthetics lies in the fact that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views of art and beauty are, for the most part, to be found not in developed theoretical accounts, but in fragments, aphorisms and poems, which are often more elusive and suggestive than conclusive.
Nevertheless, in spite of these challenges the task of characterizing romantic aesthetics is neither impossible nor undesirable, as numerous thinkers responding to Lovejoy’s radical skepticism have noted. While warning against a reductive definition of romanticism, Berlin, for example, still heralded the need for a general characterization: “[Although] one does have a certain sympathy with Lovejoy’s despair…[he is] in this instance mistaken. There was a romantic movement…and it is important to discover what it is” . . .
Recent attempts to characterize romanticism and to stress its contemporary relevance follow this path. Instead of overlooking the undeniable differences between the variety of romanticisms of different nations that Lovejoy had stressed, such studies attempt to characterize romanticism, not in terms of a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place, but in terms of “particular philosophical questions and concerns” . . .
While the German, British and French romantics are all considered, the central protagonists in the following are the German romantics. Two reasons explain this focus: first, because it has paved the way for the other romanticisms, German romanticism has a pride of place among the different national romanticisms . . . Second, the aesthetic outlook that was developed in Germany roughly between 1796 and 1801–02 — the period that corresponds to the heyday of what is known as “Early Romanticism” . . .— offers the most philosophical expression of romanticism since it is grounded primarily in the epistemological, metaphysical, ethical, and political concerns that the German romantics discerned in the aftermath of Kant’s philosophy.
Q13. According to the passage, recent studies on romanticism avoid “a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place” because they:
A. understand that the variety of romanticisms renders a general analysis impossible.
B. seek to discredit Lovejoy’s scepticism regarding romanticism.
C. prefer to focus on the fundamental concerns of the romantics.
D. prefer to highlight the paradox of romantic aesthetics as a concept.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 3 is the correct choice as it best reflects the passage's explanation of how recent studies on romanticism approach the subject. These studies aim to characterize romanticism in terms of "particular philosophical questions and concerns" rather than a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place. This approach acknowledges the undeniable differences between the romanticisms of different nations and seeks to understand romanticism based on the deeper, underlying themes and questions that were central to the romantic thinkers. By focusing on the fundamental concerns of the romantics, these studies strive to provide a more nuanced and accurate portrayal of the movement.
The other options do not accurately capture the reasons described in the passage:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the variety of romanticisms makes general analysis impossible, but rather that it necessitates a different approach.
- Option 2 is incorrect because the goal of recent studies is not primarily to discredit Lovejoy's skepticism; instead, they are responding to it by seeking a more nuanced understanding.
- Option 4 is incorrect because the focus is not specifically on highlighting the paradox but on understanding the core philosophical concerns that define romanticism.
Correct Answer is C
Q14. According to the romantics, aesthetics:
A. should be confined to a specific domain separate from the practical and theoretical aspects of life.
B. permeates all aspects of human life, philosophical and mundane.
C. is primarily the concern of philosophers and artists, rather than of ordinary people.
D. is widely considered to be irrelevant to human existence.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 2 is the correct choice as it best reflects the view of the romantics regarding aesthetics. According to the passage, the most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that "the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life." This implies that for the romantics, aesthetics is not limited to a specific domain, but instead permeates all aspects of human life, both philosophical and mundane. They believed that beauty and art should be central not only in a philosophical or artistic life but also in the lives of ordinary men and women, indicating a comprehensive and pervasive approach to aesthetics.
The other options do not align with the romantic view of aesthetics as described in the passage:
- Option 1 is incorrect because it opposes the romantics' view that aesthetics should influence all aspects of life, not be confined to a specific domain.
- Option 3 is incorrect because, while the romantics were often poets and artists themselves, they advocated for the importance of aesthetics in the lives of all people, not just a select few.
- Option 4 is incorrect because the passage indicates that the romantics considered aesthetics to be fundamentally important to human existence, not irrelevant.
Correct Answer is B
Q15. Which one of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?
A. Many romantics rejected the idea of aesthetics as a domain separate from other aspects of life.
B. Romantic aesthetics are primarily expressed through fragments, aphorisms, and poems.
C. Recent studies on romanticism seek to refute the differences between national romanticisms.
D. Characterising romantic aesthetics is both possible and desirable, despite the challenges involved.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 3 is NOT supported by the passage. The passage states that recent studies on romanticism attempt to characterize romanticism in terms of "particular philosophical questions and concerns" rather than trying to refute the differences between national romanticisms. These studies acknowledge the undeniable differences between the romanticisms of different nations highlighted by scholars like Lovejoy, suggesting that they seek to understand and characterize these variations rather than refute them.
Looking at the other options,
1. Many romantics rejected the idea of aesthetics as a domain separate from other aspects of life. - This statement is supported by the passage, which describes the most characteristic romantic commitment as the belief that the character of art and beauty should shape all aspects of human life.
2. Romantic aesthetics are primarily expressed through fragments, aphorisms, and poems. - This statement is supported by the passage, which notes that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views are often found in more elusive and suggestive forms like fragments, aphorisms, and poems rather than in developed theoretical accounts.
4. Characterising romantic aesthetics is both possible and desirable, despite the challenges involved. - This statement is supported by the passage, which, while acknowledging the challenges and skepticism around defining romanticism, suggests that characterizing romantic aesthetics is a worthwhile endeavor that has been pursued by numerous thinkers.
Correct Answer is C
Q16. The main difficulty in studying romanticism is the:
A. absence of written accounts by romantic poets and artists.
B. lack of clear conceptual contours of the domain.
C. controversial and scandalous history of romantic literature.
D. elusive and suggestive nature of romantic aesthetics.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 2 is the correct choice as it aligns with the passage's description of the main difficulty in studying romanticism. According to the passage, Lovejoy claimed that the word 'romantic' has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing. This highlights the lack of clear conceptual contours of the domain of romanticism, indicating that the main difficulty is the absence of any single real entity or type of entity that the concept 'romanticism' designates.
The other options are not supported by the passage as the main difficulty:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage doesn't claim an absence of written accounts; rather, it mentions that romantic views are often found in fragments, aphorisms, and poems.
- Option 3 is incorrect because, while romantic literature may have a controversial history, this is not identified as the main difficulty in studying romanticism.
- Option 4 is incorrect because, although the elusive and suggestive nature of romantic aesthetics adds to the challenge of characterizing it, the passage specifically emphasizes the lack of a clear, singular entity that defines romanticism as the main difficulty.
Correct Answer is B
Fill in The Blank 1
There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Q17.
Sentence: For theoretical purposes, arguments may be considered as freestanding entities, abstracted from their contexts of use in actual human activities.
Paragraph : ___(1)___. An argument can be defined as a complex symbolic structure where some parts, known as the premises, offer support to another part, the conclusion. Alternatively, an argument can be viewed as a complex speech act consisting of one or more acts of premising (which assert propositions in favor of the conclusion), an act of concluding, and a stated or implicit marker (“hence”, “therefore”) that indicates that the conclusion follows from the premises.___(2)___. The relation of support between premises and conclusion can be cashed out in different ways: the premises may guarantee the truth of the conclusion, or make its truth more probable; the premises may imply the conclusion; the premises may make the conclusion more acceptable (or assertible).___(3)___. But depending on one’s explanatory goals, there is also much to be gained from considering arguments as they in fact occur in human communicative practices.___(4)___.
A. Option 3
B. Option 1
C. Option 2
D. Option 4
Solution
Explanation:
Option 1: Placing the sentence here would introduce the theoretical perspective too early, before the paragraph has begun to define what an argument is. It's more logical to first understand what an argument is and then discuss the theoretical perspectives surrounding it.
Option 2: This option would interrupt the flow between defining an argument and explaining the different ways premises can support conclusions. It doesn't provide a natural transition or contrast at this point.
Option 3: This is the correct position, as it bridges the theoretical definitions and explanations of arguments with the upcoming discussion about the practical application of these theories in human communicative practices. It contrasts the theoretical abstraction with practical usage.
Option 4: Placing the sentence here would be after the discussion has already moved towards practical considerations. It would be less effective as it would disrupt the concluding thoughts on applying theoretical concepts to practical scenarios.
Therefore, Option 3 is the correct choice as it effectively transitions from theoretical discussions of arguments to considering their practical applications, underscoring the dual focus of theoretical abstraction and practical relevance in understanding arguments.
Correct Answer is A
Fill in the Blank 2
There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Q18.
Sentence: Beyond undermining the monopoly of the State on the use of force, armed conflict also creates an environment that can enable organized crime to prosper.
Paragraph: ___(1)___. Linkages between illicit arms, organized crime, and armed conflict can reinforce one another while also escalating and prolonging violence and eroding governance.___(2)___. Financial gains from crime can lengthen or intensify armed conflicts by creating revenue streams for non-State armed groups (NSAGs).___(3)___. In this context, when hostilities cease and parties to a conflict move towards a peaceful resolution, the widespread availability of surplus arms and ammunition can contribute to a situation of ‘criminalized peace’ that obstructs sustainable peacebuilding efforts.___(4)___.
A. Option 1
B. Option 4
C. Option 3
D. Option 2
Solution
Explanation:
Placing the sentence at Option 3 provides a transition from the discussion of the financial dynamics of armed conflict and how crime can lengthen or intensify conflicts into the broader implications of these conflicts on societal structures and governance. The sentence introduces the concept that armed conflict does more than disrupt state control; it also fosters conditions conducive to the growth of organized crime. This broader implication helps transition into the idea of a 'criminalized peace,' where the aftermath of conflict sees a continuation of criminal activities, impacting peacebuilding efforts.
- Option 1: Placing it here would preempt the more specific discussion of the linkages between illicit arms, organized crime, and armed conflict without first establishing the basic dynamics and implications of these relationships.
- Option 2: This position would interrupt the flow of detailing how financial gains from crime affect armed conflicts, which is more focused on the mechanics of funding and supporting conflict through illicit means.
- Option 3: This position effectively bridges the discussion from the specific consequences of crime on conflicts to the broader, overarching impact of armed conflict on creating an environment conducive to organized crime. It provides a thematic linkage to the concluding part of the paragraph discussing 'criminalized peace.'
- Option 4: Placing it here would be too late, as it would come after the discussion of 'criminalized peace,' which is a concept that builds upon the understanding of how armed conflict fosters environments enabling crime.
Therefore, Option 3 is the most logical and coherent placement for the sentence, effectively linking the specific impacts of crime on armed conflict to the broader social and governance issues arising in the aftermath of such conflicts.
Correct Answer is C
Odd One Out 1
Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.
Q19.
- Although hard skills have traditionally ruled the roost, some companies are moving away from choosing prospective hires based on technical abilities alone.
- Companies are shaking off the old definition of an ideal candidate and ditching the idea of looking for the singularly perfect candidate altogether.
- Now, some job descriptions are frequently asking for candidates to demonstrate soft skills, such as leadership or teamwork.
- That’s not to say that practical know-how is no longer required – some jobs still call for highly specific expertise
- The move towards prioritising soft skills “is a natural response to three years of the pandemic” says a senior recruiter at Cenlar FSB.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Solution
Explanation:
Sentence 2 stands out as the odd one because it diverges from the primary narrative of shifting hiring priorities towards soft skills. While Sentences 1, 3, 4, and 5 collectively outline the evolving hiring practices, highlight the value of soft skills, and consider the pandemic's influence, Sentence 2 broaches a broader notion of reevaluating the ideal candidate, not pinpointing the increased emphasis on soft skills. This broader perspective on redefining the ideal candidate doesn't align as closely with the specific theme of adapting hiring criteria to include soft skills, distinguishing it from the rest.
Correct Answer is B
Odd One Out 2
Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.
Q20.
- Boa Senior, who lived through the 2004 tsunami, the Japanese occupation and diseases brought by British settlers, was the last native of the island chain who was fluent in Bo.
- The indigenous population has been steadily collapsing since the island chain was colonised by British settlers in 1858 and used for most of the following 100 years as a colonial penal colony.
- Taking its name from a now-extinct tribe, Bo is one of the 10 Great Andamanese languages, which are thought to date back to pre-Neolithic human settlement of south-east Asia.
- The last speaker of an ancient tribal language has died in the Andaman Islands, breaking a 65,000-year link to one of the world’s oldest cultures.
- Though the language has been closely studied by researchers of linguistic history, Boa Senior spent the last few years of her life unable to converse with anyone in her mother tongue.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Solution
Explanation:
Sentence 4 introduces the main topic of the last speaker of an ancient tribal language passing away, establishing the significance of the event.
Sentence 1 provides specific details about Boa Senior, the last fluent speaker of the Bo language, including key events she lived through, tying back to the loss mentioned in Sentence 4.
Sentence 3 gives background information about the Bo language itself, linking it to the broader context of the Great Andamanese languages and their historical significance.
Sentence 5 continues the narrative by discussing the linguistic aspect of Boa Senior's life, mentioning that despite linguistic research, she spent her last years unable to converse in her mother tongue.
In contrast, Sentence 2, while related to the historical and cultural context of the Andaman Islands, focuses more on the long-term demographic changes rather than directly contributing to the narrative about the loss of the language and its last speaker. It doesn't seamlessly integrate into the specific story of the language's demise and Boa Senior's experience as the other sentences do. Therefore, it stands out as the odd one in forming a coherent paragraph about the extinction of the Bo language and its last native speaker.
Correct Answer is A
Para Jumbles 1
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.
Q21.
- Centuries later formal learning is still mostly based on reading, even with the widespread use of other possible education-affecting technologies such as film, radio, and television.
- One of the immediate and recognisable impacts of the printing press was on how people learned; in the scribal culture it primarily involved listening, so memorization was paramount.
- The transformation of learners from listeners to readers was a complex social and cultural phenomenon, and it was not until the industrial era that the concept of universal literacy took root.
- The printing press shifted the learning process, as listening and memorisation gradually gave way to reading and learning no longer required the presence of a mentor; it could be done privately.
A. 1234
B. 2431
C. 3241
D. 4321
Solution
Explanation:
Sentence 2 introduces the impact of the printing press on learning, shifting from a culture of listening and memorization to a different mode. This sentence sets the historical context of learning before the printing press and should be the starting point.
Sentence 4 continues from Sentence 2 by detailing how the printing press shifted the learning process from listening and memorization to reading and independent learning. This sentence logically follows the introduction of the printing press's impact.
Sentence 3 discusses the broader social and cultural transformation as learners transitioned from listeners to readers and mentions the historical timeline extending to the industrial era and the concept of universal literacy. This sentence expands on the transformation initiated by the printing press.
Sentence 1 concludes the paragraph by relating the historical context to contemporary times, noting that despite other technologies like film, radio, and television, reading remains a central part of formal learning.
Thus, the proper sequence for the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is 2, 4, 3, 1
This sequence progresses logically from the introduction of the printing press's impact on learning to the long-term social and cultural transformation, concluding with a modern perspective on the persistence of reading in education.
Correct Answer is B
Para Jumbles 2
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.
Q22.
- Veena Sahajwalla, a materials scientist at the University of New South Wales, believes there is a new way of solving this problem.
- Her vision is for automated drones and robots to pick out components, put them into a small furnace and smelt them at specific temperatures to extract the metals one by one before they are sent off to manufacturers for reuse.
- E-waste contains huge quantities of valuable metals, ceramics and plastics that could be salvaged and recycled, although currently not enough of it is.
- She plans to build microfactories that can tease apart the tangle of materials in mobile phones, computers and other e-waste.
A. 4231
B. 3142
C. 2134
D. 1342
Solution
Explanation:
Sentence 3 sets the stage by introducing the problem: e-waste contains valuable materials that are not sufficiently salvaged and recycled.
Sentence 1 introduces Veena Sahajwalla, a materials scientist who believes there is a new way to solve the e-waste problem. This introduces the protagonist after the problem is stated.
Sentence 4 elaborates on Veena Sahajwalla's plans to build microfactories to address the e-waste issue, providing a more detailed look at her solution.
Sentence 2 provides further details on how these microfactories would function, using automated drones and robots to extract metals for reuse.
Therefore, the proper sequence of sentences to form a coherent paragraph is 3, 1, 4, 2.
This order logically introduces the problem of e-waste, the scientist proposing a solution, the concept of her solution, and finally the details of how it would work.
Correct Answer is B
Para Summary 1
The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Q23. The weight of society’s expectations is hardly a new phenomenon but it has become particularly draining over recent decades, perhaps because expectations themselves are so multifarious and contradictory. The perfectionism of the 1950s was rooted in the norms of mass culture and captured in famous advertising images of the ideal white American family that now seem self-satirising. In that era, perfectionism meant seamlessly conforming to values, behaviour and appearance: chiselled confidence for men, demure graciousness for women. The perfectionist was under pressure to look like everyone else, only more so. The perfectionists of today, by contrast, feel an obligation to stand out through their idiosyncratic style and wit if they are to gain a foothold in the attention economy.
A. Though long-standing, the pressure to appear perfect and thereby attract attention, has evolved over time from one of conformism to one of non-conformism.
B. The image of perfectionism is reflected in and perpetuated by the media; and people do their best to adhere to these ideals.
C. The pressure to appear perfect has been the cause of tension and conflict because the idea itself has been in a state of flux and hard to define.
D. The desire to attract attention is so deep-rooted in individual consciousness that people are willing to go to any lengths to achieve it.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 1 best captures the essence of the passage. The passage discusses how societal expectations and the pursuit of perfectionism have evolved from a desire to conform to mass cultural norms in the 1950s (where the ideal was to look like everyone else, only better) to the present day, where there's a pressure to stand out with one's unique style and wit in order to gain attention. The summary in Option 1 accurately reflects this shift from conformism to non-conformism, highlighting the change in how people feel pressured to appear perfect over time.
The other options don't encapsulate the passage as precisely:
Option 2 emphasizes the role of media in reflecting and perpetuating the image of perfectionism. While media influence is implied in the passage through the reference to "famous advertising images," this option doesn't cover the full scope of the evolution from conformist to individualistic perfectionism.
Option 3 focuses on the tensions and conflicts arising from the changing nature of perfectionism. While the passage does suggest that perfectionism is multifarious and contradictory, leading to it being "draining," this option doesn't clearly convey the historical evolution of perfectionism as described.
Option 4 suggests that the deep-rooted desire to attract attention drives individuals to extreme lengths. While the passage does mention the "attention economy" in the context of modern perfectionism, this option doesn't capture the contrast between past and present ideals of perfectionism or the societal aspect of these pressures.
Correct Answer is A
Para Summary 2
The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Q24. Gradually, life for the island’s birds is improving. Antarctic prions and white-headed petrels, which also nest in burrows, had managed to cling on in some sites while pests were on the island. Their numbers are now increasing. “It’s fantastic and so exciting,” Shaw says. As birds return to breed, they also poo. This adds nutrients to the soil, which in turn helps the plants to grow back stronger. Tall plants then help burrowing birds hide from predatory skuas. “It’s this wonderful feedback loop,” Shaw says. Today, the “pretty paddock” that Houghton first experienced has been transformed. “The tussock is over your head, and you’re dodging all these penguin tunnels,” she says. The orchids and tiny herb that had been protected by fencing have started turning up all over the place.
A. In the absence of pests, life on the island is now protected, and there has been a revival of a variety of birds and plants.
B. There is a huge positive transformation of the ecosystem of the island when brought under environmental protection.
C. Flowering plants, herbs and birds are now being protected on this wonderful Antarctic island.
D. There is an increasing number of predatory birds and plants on the island despite the presence of pests which is a positive development.
Solution
Explanation:
Option 1 best captures the essence of the passage. The passage describes the improvement in the birds' lives on the island following the removal of pests, leading to an increase in their numbers. As the birds return and contribute nutrients to the soil through their droppings, there is a positive impact on the vegetation, which in turn supports the birds further. This cycle is described as a "wonderful feedback loop." Additionally, the transformation of the landscape is mentioned, with the tussock growing taller and the spread of previously protected plants. The summary in Option 1 reflects the revival of birds and plants due to the improved conditions on the island, indicating the absence of pests and a protected environment.
The other options don't encapsulate the passage as effectively:
Option 2 mentions a "huge positive transformation" which is true, but it implies that the transformation is due to the island being brought under environmental protection, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. The focus is more on the natural revival and interdependence of birds and plants rather than a specific environmental protection action.
Option 3 focuses on the protection of plants and birds on the island but does not capture the interactive nature of the ecosystem's recovery or the specific improvements and changes described in the passage.
Option 4 is incorrect because it mentions the increasing number of predatory birds and plants despite pests, which contradicts the passage's focus on recovery after the removal of pests. It also incorrectly suggests that pests are still present, which is not indicated in the passage.
Correct Answer is A
CAT 2023 Slot 3 LRDI Question Paper With Solution
SET 1
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
- The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
- The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
- Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
- Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
- Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
- Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Q1. What was Rini’s score in the project?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Solution
Explanation:
3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test
The tentative table can be drawn as below:
Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60
The new table becomes:
Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64
∴ Rini’s score in the project was 60
Correct Answer is D
Q2. What was the weight of the test component?
A. 0.40
B. 0.60
C. 0.50
D. 0.75
Solution
Explanation:
3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test
The tentative table can be drawn as below:
Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60
The new table becomes:
Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64
∴ Weight of the test component was 0.6
Correct Answer is B
Q3. What was the maximum aggregate score obtained by the students?
A. 66
B. 68
C. 80
D. 62
Solution
Explanation:
3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test
The tentative table can be drawn as below:
Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60
The new table becomes:
Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64
∴ Max aggregate score = 68
Correct Answer is B
Q4. What was Mathew’s score in the test?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
Solution
Explanation:
3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test
The tentative table can be drawn as below:
Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60
The new table becomes:
Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64
∴ Mathew’s score in the test = 40
Correct Answer is C
Q5. Which of the following pairs of students were part of the same project team? i) Amala and Biman ii) Koli and Mathew
A. Both i) and ii)
B. Neither i) nor ii)
C. Only i)
D. Only ii)
Solution
Explanation:
3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test
The tentative table can be drawn as below:
Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60
The new table becomes:
Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64
∴ Neither i) Amala and Biman nor ii) Koli and Mathew were part of one project team.
Correct Answer is B
SET 2
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
ADD IMAGE
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
- Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Q6. Which one among the following stations is visited the largest number of times?
A. Station F
B. Station C
C. Station D
D. Station E
Solution
Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E
At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.
Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.
F is visited 3 times, C 3 times, D 2 times, E 5/6 times
∴ E is visited the most
Correct Answer is D
Q7. How many times do the teams pass through Station B in a day?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
Solution
Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E
At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.
Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.
∴ The teams pass B 2 times in a day
Correct Answer is A
Q8. Which team patrols the street connecting Stations D and E at 10:15 hrs?
A. Team 3
B. Team 2
C. Team 1
D. Team 4
Solution
Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E
At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.
Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.
∴ Team 3 patrols D-E at 10:15 AM
Correct Answer is A
Q9. How many times does Team 4 pass through Station E in a day?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Solution
Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E
At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.
Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.
∴ Team 4 passes E 2 times in a day
Correct Answer is C
Q10. How many teams pass through Station C in a day?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Solution
Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E
At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.
Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.
∴ Teams 3 and 4, i.e., 2 teams pass through C in a day
Correct Answer is D
SET 3
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known.
- In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
- In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
- In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
- The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
- The number of online registrations was the largest in May
ADD IMAGE
Q11. What was the total number of registrations in April?
A. 100
B. 110
C. 120
D. 130
Solution
Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.
Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Total registrations in April = 120
Correct Answer is C
Q12. What was the number of online registrations in January?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
Solution
Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.
Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Number of online registrations in January = 40
Correct Answer is D
Q13. Which of the following statements can be true?
I. The number of offline registrations was the smallest in May.
II. The total number of registrations was the smallest in February.
A. Neither I nor II
B. Only I
C. Both I and II
D. Only II
Solution
Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.
Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ The number of offline registrations was the smallest in May. The total number of registrations was NOT the smallest in February
Correct Answer is B
Q14. What best can be concluded about the number of offline registrations in February?
A. 50
B. 50 or 80
C. 30 or 50 or 80
D. 80
Solution
Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.
Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Number of offline registrations in Feb = 50
Correct Answer is A
Q15. Which pair of months definitely had the same total number of registrations?
I. January and April
II. February and May
A. Both I and II
B. Only II
C. Only I
D. Neither I nor II
Solution
Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.
Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Both January and April, and February and May had the same total number of registrations.
Correct Answer is A
SET 4
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
- Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
- D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
- A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
- The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
- D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
- D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
- D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Q16. How many Split Inverter ACs did D2 sell?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 19
Solution
Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.
2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below
2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.
∴ D2 sold 14 split inverter ACs
Correct Answer is C
Q17. What percentage of ACs sold were of Non-inverter type?
A. 75.00%
B. 33.33%
C. 20.00%
D. 25.00%
Solution
Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.
2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.
2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.
∴ 15/60 i.e., 25% ACs sold were of Non Inverter type
Correct Answer is D
Q18. What was the total number of ACs sold by D2 and D4?
A. 11
B. 22
C. 33
D. 44
Solution
Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.
2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.
2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.
∴ Total ACs sold by D2 and D4 = 60-(15+12) = 33
Correct Answer is C
Q19. Which of the following statements is necessarily false?
A. D1 and D3 together sold more ACs as compared to D2 and D4 together.
B. D1 and D3 sold an equal number of Split ACs.
C. D2 sold the highest number of ACs.
D. D4 sold more Split ACs as compared to D3.
Solution
Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.
2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.
2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.
∴ As we saw in the last question, D2 and D4 sold more ACs (33) than D1 and D3 (27)
Correct Answer is A
Q20. If D3 and D4 sold an equal number of ACs, then what was the number of Non-inverter ACs sold by D2?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4
Solution
Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a
table like this can be drawn.
2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.
2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.
∴ If D3 and D4 sold an equal number of ACs, D2 would have sold 5 Non-inverter ACs
Correct Answer is C
CAT 2023 Slot 3 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Solution
Q1. Let n and m be two positive integers such that there are exactly 41 integers greater than 8m and less than 8n, which can be expressed as powers of 2. Then, the smallest possible value of n+m is
A 44
B 42
C 14
D 16
Q2.
A. 40√5
B. 36√5
C. 30√5
D. 34√5
Q3.
A. 15
B. 33
C. 25
D. 55
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B
Q4.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B.
Q5.
A. 9
B. 6
C. 13
D. 5
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is D
Q6. A quadratic equation x²+bx+c=0 has two real roots. If the difference between the reciprocals of the roots is 13, and the sum of the reciprocals of the squares of the roots is 59, then the largest possible value of (b+c)is
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is D.
Q7. The sum of the first two natural numbers, each having 15 factors (including 1 and the number itself), is
A. 298
B. 468
C. 749
D. 648
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B.
Q8. There are three persons A, B and C in a room. If a person D joins the room, the average weight of the persons in the room reduces by x kg. Instead of D, if person E joins the room, the average weight of the persons in the room increases by 2x kg. If the weight of E is 12 kg more than that of D, then the value of x is
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 1
Solution
Explanation:
Let the avg weight of A, B, C be z kgs
D’s weight = (z - x) - 3x = z - 4x i.e, D’s weight is x less than the avg weight of A,B,C and an additional 3x less to account for the decrease in the avg weights of A,B,C
Similarly, E’s weight = (z + 2x) + 3(2x) = z + 8x
Difference in weights = (z + 8x) - (z - 4x) = 12
=> x = 1
Correct Answer is D
Q9. A boat takes 2 hours to travel downstream a river from port A to port B, and 3 hours to return to port A. Another boat takes a total of 6 hours to travel from port B to port A and return to port B. If the speeds of the boats and the river are constant, then the time, in hours, taken by the slower boat to travel from port A to port B is
A. 3(3-√5)
B. 12(√5-2)
C. 3(3+√5)
D. 3(√5-1)
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is A.
Q10. The population of a town in 2020 was 100000. The population decreased by y% from the year 2020 to 2021, and increased by x% from the year 2021 to 2022, where x and y are two natural numbers. If population in 2022 was greater than the population in 2020 and the difference between x and y is 10, then the lowest possible population of the town in 2021 was
A. 72000
B. 73000
C. 74000
D. 75000
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B.
Q11. A merchant purchases a cloth at a rate of Rs.100 per meter and receives 5 cm length of cloth free for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by him. He sells the same cloth at a rate of Rs.110 per meter but cheats his customers by giving 95 cm length of cloth for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by the customers. If the merchant provides a 5% discount, the resulting profit earned by him is
A. 9.7%
B. 16%
C. 4.2%
D. 15.5%
Solution
Explanation:
Profit per 100 m of cloth bought = 5%
Profit due to selling at Rs. 10 higher = 10%
Profit due to cheating = (5/95)100 = 5.26%
Discount given = 5%
Using Multiplication Factor approach, 1.05 x 1.10 x 1.0526 x 0.95 = 1.155
∴ Resultant profit = 15.5%
Correct Answer is D
Q12. Rahul, Rakshita and Gurmeet, working together, would have taken more than 7 days to finish a job. On the other hand, Rahul and Gurmeet, working together would have taken less than 15 days to finish the job. However, they all worked together for 6 days, followed by Rakshita, who worked alone for 3 more days to finish the job. If Rakshita had worked alone on the job then the number of days she would have taken to finish the job, cannot be
A. 20
B. 21
C. 16
D. 17
Solution
Explanation:
Rahul + Rakshita + Gurmeet > 7 days
Rahul + Gurmeet < 15 days
From the given options, it is quite intuitive that Rakshita will not take either of the extreme days i.e., 16 or 21
Now if Rakshita takes 21 days to complete the whole work alone, she will do 3/21 = 1/7 work in 3 days (from the given scenario that 6 days all 3 + 3 days Rakshita = 1 work completed)
=> All 3 did 6/7 work in 6 days
So, 1 work will be done by all in 6x7/6 = 7 days
But it is given that all 3 take more than 7 days to complete the work.
∴ Rakshita cannot take 21 days to complete the work
Correct Answer is B
Q13. Anil mixes cocoa with sugar in the ratio 3 : 2 to prepare mixture A, and coffee with sugar in the ratio 7 : 3 to prepare mixture B. He combines mixtures A and B in the ratio 2 : 3 to make a new mixture C. If he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, then the percentage of sugar in this drink will be
A. 17
B. 24
C. 21
D. 16
Solution
Explanation:
Mix A sugar proportion = 2/5
Mix B sugar proportion = 3/10
2/5 3/10
\ /
x
/ \
m n
= 2 : 3
(x - 3/10)/(2/5 - x) = 2/3
=> 3x - 9/10 = 4/5 - 2x
=> 5x = 17/10
=> x = 17/50 i.e., C has the proportion of sugar as 17/50
Equal amounts of milk added to C makes the total quantity of mixture = 50+50 = 100
∴ Percentage of sugar = 17%
Correct Answer is A
Q14. The number of coins collected per week by two coin-collectors A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4. If the total number of coins collected by A in 5 weeks is a multiple of 7, and the total number of coins collected by B in 3 weeks is a multiple of 24, then the minimum possible number of coins collected by A in one week is
A. 21
B. 42
C. 84
D. 168
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B.
Q15. A fruit seller has a stock of mangoes, bananas and apples with at least one fruit of each type. At the beginning of a day, the number of mangoes make up 40% of his stock. That day, he sells half of the mangoes, 96 bananas and 40% of the apples. At the end of the day, he ends up selling 50% of the fruits. The smallest possible total number of fruits in the stock at the beginning of the day is
A. 129
B. 239
C. 340
D. 382
Solution
Explanation:
Let there be a total of 10x fruits: 4x mangoes, y apples, 6x-y bananas
Sold: 2x mangoes, 0.4y apples, 96 bananas
2(2x + 0.4y + 96) = 10x
=> 6x = 0.8y + 192
=> 10x = 4y/3 + 320
If y = 3, x = 32.4
=> 4x, 6x-y won’t be natural numbers
y = 6, y = 9, y = 12 also do not give a possible result
For y = 15, x = 34 which is a natural number.
∴ Total fruits at the start of the day = 10x = 340
Correct Answer is C
Q16. Gautam and Suhani, working together, can finish a job in 20 days. If Gautam does only 60% of his usual work on a day, Suhani must do 150% of her usual work on that day to exactly make up for it. Then, the number of days required by the faster worker to complete the job working alone is
A. 28
B. 36
C. 93
D. 26
Solution
Explanation:
Let G and S do x and y units of work daily totaling a total of 1 i.e., x + y = 1
Also, 0.6x + 1.5y = 1
Solving the 2 equations, we get
0.9y = 0.4
=> y = 4/9, x = 5/9
∴ The faster one will take 20/(5/9) = 36 days to complete the work
Correct Answer is B
Q17. A rectangle with the largest possible area is drawn inside a semicircle of radius 2 cm. Then, the ratio of the lengths of the largest to the smallest side of this rectangle is
A. √2 ∶1
B. 2 ∶1
C. √5 ∶1
D. 1 ∶1
Solution
Explanation:
Correct answer is B.
Q18.
A. 2 sin 15°
B. cos 15°
C. sin 15°
D. 2 cos 15°
Solution
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D
Q19. In a regular polygon, any interior angle exceeds the exterior angle by 120 degrees. Then, the number of diagonals of this polygon is
A. 89
B. 35
C. 54
D. 92
Solution
Explanation:
Interior angle of a polygon with n sides = (n-2)180/n
Exterior angle = 360/n
360/n - (n-2)180/n = 120
=> 720/n = 300
n does not come out to be a natural number.
Let’s try (n-2)180/n - 360/n = 120
=> 60 = 720/n
=> n = 12
∴ Number of diagonals = n(n-3)/2 = 54
Or
I + E = 180, I - E = 120
=> I = 150, E = 30 = 360/n
=> n = 12
∴ Number of diagonals = n(n-3)/2 = 54
Correct Answer is C
Q20.
A. 16/11
B. 15/8
C. 15/13
D. 27/12
Solution
Explanation:
Correct Answer is A
Q21. Let an=46+8n and bn=98+4n be two sequences for natural numbers n≤100. Then, the sum of all terms common to both the sequences is
A. 14900
B. 14602
C. 15000
D. 14798
Solution
Explanation:
Correct Answer is A
Q22. Suppose f(x, y) is a real-valued function such that f(3x + 2y, 2x – 5y) = 19x, for all real numbers x and y. The value of x for which f(x, 2x) = 27, is
A. 9
B. 71
C. 2
D. 3
Solution
Explanation:
f(3x+2y, 2x-5y) = 19x
RHS is independent of y
We will have to do something to eliminate y from LHS
a(3x+2y) + b(2x-5y) = 19x
For a = 5, b = 2, y gets eliminated and we get 19x on LHS
=> 5x + 2(2x) = 27
∴ x = 3
Correct Answer is D
