CAT 2023 Slot 3 Question Paper With Solution | VARC, LRDI, QA

Explanation:

Reviewing the reviewer's discussion of "The Nutmeg's Curse," let's analyze each option:
Option 1. The passage doesn't specifically state that academic discourses have always been about raising awareness for environmental preservation. Instead, it discusses how European colonialists and their backers dominated global intellectual discourse, often exploiting the Earth and overlooking indigenous understandings of human-Earth relationships. The text indicates that while there have been challenges to this view, it doesn't imply that academic discourses have universally focused on environmental preservation. Therefore, this statement is the one that can be considered not inferable from the given passage, making it the correct answer.

Option 2. It's evident from the review that the contemporary dominant perception of nature as a 'resource' to exploit is deeply connected to colonial practices. The text illustrates how colonialists decimated indigenous populations and their understandings of the Earth, shifting the view of nature towards exploitation. This is a key theme of the book as described in the passage and can be inferred as accurate.

Option 3. The history of climate change is described as extending back to the beginning of European colonialism, with the author of "The Nutmeg's Curse" attributing early environmental degradation and climate issues to these historical practices. The passage makes a direct link between the history of colonialism and climate change, suggesting this is a core argument of the book.

Option 4. The passage indicates that there are valuable alternative views to the dominant narrative, specifically mentioning non-European perspectives like that of Pachamama from Latin America. It suggests that policymakers and others could learn from these perspectives, particularly in the context of global climate negotiations and broader environmental understanding.

From this analysis, option 1 stands out as the statement that cannot be inferred from the reviewer's discussion of "The Nutmeg's Curse." While the other options align with the themes and arguments presented in the passage, the claim that academic discourses have always focused on raising environmental awareness overstates the text's content and is not supported by the provided details.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

The reviewer uses the pronoun "who" for Gaia to personify the Earth, reflecting the non-European perspectives that view the Earth as a living entity with agency, as opposed to an inert object. Let's examine which option, if true, would make this choice of pronoun inappropriate:

Option 1. Changing the title of Ghosh's book to "The Nutmeg’s Revenge" does not inherently affect the thematic content of the book or the appropriateness of personifying Earth. The title change alone doesn't impact the notion of Earth as a living entity or otherwise.

Option 2. If modern western science discovers new evidence for the Earth being an inanimate object, this could potentially challenge the perspective of Earth as a living entity with agency. This discovery would lend credence to the view of Earth as an inert object, thus making the use of the pronoun "who" less appropriate for Gaia.

Option 3. The existence of a direct cause-effect relationship between human activities and global climate change doesn't negate the personification of the Earth. This option is more about the impact of human actions on the environment and doesn't directly address the Earth's agency or living status.

Option 4. If it were true that non-European societies perceived the Earth as a non-living source of all resources, this would directly contradict the basis for using "who" as a pronoun for Gaia. The personification is based on the idea that non-European and indigenous perspectives often see the Earth as a living, sentient entity. If these societies viewed the Earth as non-living, it would undermine the rationale for using a personal pronoun, making it inappropriate.

Considering the implications of each option, option 4 would make the reviewer's choice of the pronoun "who" for Gaia inappropriate if it were true. It directly challenges the personification of the Earth, which is central to the argument about different cultural perspectives on the Earth's nature. If non-European societies viewed Earth as an inanimate object, the basis for referring to it with a personal pronoun would be significantly weakened.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation: 

In "The Nutmeg's Curse," the colonization of the Banda islands is discussed as a significant historical event that reflects the broader implications of colonialism on the environment and climate change. The primary purpose of this discussion appears to be:

Option 1: The passage suggests that the colonization and subsequent exploitation of the Banda islands exemplify the destructive mindset and practices introduced by colonialism. This mindset, characterized by the systematic exploitation of natural resources and disregard for indigenous knowledge and relationships with the Earth, has contributed to the current climate crisis. The author uses this historical event to illustrate the long-term impacts of colonial attitudes and practices on the environment, making this the most fitting explanation for the primary purpose of the discussion.

The other options, while they touch upon aspects of the event or broader themes in the book, do not encapsulate the primary purpose as directly and comprehensively as option 1 does in relation to the passage's content. The colonization of the Banda islands serves as a critical example in the narrative to illustrate the deep-rooted and far-reaching consequences of the colonialist mindset on climate and environmental degradation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Based on the passage, let's examine each option as a potential reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change:

Option 1: The passage discusses how power utilities are sabotaging decentralized solar power generation because it affects their revenues and control. However, the decentralized characteristic of renewable energy like solar power isn't itself cited as a reason for policy failure; rather, the resistance from existing power structures is. The decentralization of renewable energy is typically seen as a beneficial aspect for promoting sustainability and reducing reliance on centralized power systems. Thus, this option is not presented as a reason for policy failure in the passage.

Option 2: The passage clearly states that non-European perspectives, such as viewing the Earth as Pachamama, are often marginalized in global climate negotiations. This marginalization could lead to the failure of policies as it results in a narrow approach that doesn't fully incorporate diverse understandings and respects for nature, which are crucial for effective climate action. Therefore, this is identified as a reason contributing to policy failure.

Option 3: The greed of organizations benefiting from non-renewable energy resources is mentioned as a factor in the passage. It talks about how vested interests in the oil economy and the actions of power utilities to sabotage decentralized solar power generation due to its impact on their revenues. This greed and protection of vested interests are presented as significant obstacles to effective climate change policies.

Option 4: The global dominance of oil economies and the politics surrounding it are discussed as major barriers. The passage explains that this dominance extends not just to oil-exporting countries but also to superpowers like the US that control oil drilling, prices, and movement. The entrenched interests and control in the oil economy are portrayed as significant impediments to transitioning toward sustainable energy and addressing climate change effectively.
Based on the discussion in the passage, Option 1 is NOT presented as a reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change. While the other options are indicated as barriers or reasons for the failure of climate change policies, the decentralized nature of renewable energy such as solar power is not itself portrayed as a reason for policy failure; instead, the resistance and sabotage by those benefiting from the status quo are.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

The author endorses Pinker's views on the importance of logical reasoning because it equips people with the ability to tackle challenging practical problems. This is derived from the passage where Pinker's main focus is described as conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. This type of skill is directly applied to navigating many real-world issues, as Pinker illustrates how a greater mastery of rationality can improve decision-making across various fields, including medical, legal, and financial contexts.

The other options, while they may have some merit, are not directly supported by the passage. Option 1 is too narrow, focusing only on statistics and scientific disciplines, and doesn't encompass the broader application of logical reasoning in various aspects of life as suggested by the passage. Option 3 suggests that logical reasoning provides a moral compass for ethical dilemmas, but the passage indicates that this aspect of rationality is underexplored in Pinker's work. Option 4, about focusing public attention away from sensational events, is a result of applying rational thought, but it's not the primary reason the author endorses Pinker's views; it's more of an outcome of rationality rather than its fundamental importance.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Option 1 is correct because the author suggests that Pinker, along with ancient Greek philosophers, does not view conscious sequential reasoning as the sole basis for seminal human achievements. The passage acknowledges the role of intuition and moments of epiphany in major scientific and artistic discoveries, such as Kekulé's discovery of the structure of benzene and Mozart's symphonies. This indicates that significant intellectual and creative breakthroughs can also come from beyond structured, logical reasoning.

The other options are not correct because they are consistent with Pinker's and the Greek philosophers' views on rational thought:

- Option 2 discusses arriving at independent conclusions without being swayed by the presenter, which is in line with the critical thinking aspect of rationality both Pinker and the philosophers endorse.

- Option 3 addresses the ethical and moral dimensions of logical reasoning, which Pinker acknowledges as part of rationality, although the passage notes this aspect is not fully developed in his work.

- Option 4 involves an awareness of one’s own knowledge limitations and the assumptions present in arguments, which is a critical component of Socratic thinking and is also embraced by Pinker’s focus on rationality.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Option 3 is the correct choice because the author uses the reference to ancient Greek philosophers to point out what Pinker's discussion lacks. The passage notes that while Pinker acknowledges the moral dimension of rationality, he doesn't delve deeply into the role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior, which is something the ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle explored extensively. The author implies that this is an oversight in Pinker's work, suggesting that the development of moral character is crucial for the beneficial application of rationality.

The other options are not correct because:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not explicitly state that Pinker’s arguments were influenced by ancient Greek philosophers; it simply draws a comparison.

- Option 2 is incorrect because it suggests that the passage is making a direct comparison between the thinking of Pinker and that of the Greek philosophers, which it does not do beyond noting the underdevelopment of the ethical dimension in Pinker’s work.

- Option 4 is incorrect because the reference to dreams and visions is used to illustrate that significant achievements can arise from non-rational sources, not necessarily to show the influence of subconscious behavior on inventions throughout history.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Option 1 is the correct choice. The author uses the examples of Kekulé and Mozart to emphasize that great innovations are not exclusively the result of conscious, sequential reasoning but can also come from intuitive insights. Kekulé's scientific discovery and Mozart's musical compositions serve as evidence that flashes of intuition play a significant role in creative and scientific processes alike.
The other options are not supported by the passage:

- Option 2 is incorrect because the author does not make a distinction between the sciences and other fields regarding the source of human achievements; instead, the point is made across various fields.

- Option 3, while it acknowledges the role of creativity in scientific fields, does not encompass the full argument about intuition versus logical reasoning made in the passage.

- Option 4 is incorrect because it suggests a contradiction in Pinker's reasoning based on historical achievements, which the passage does not directly argue. The author does not claim that Pinker's conclusions are refuted by past achievements but simply highlights the existence of other forms of reasoning contributing to great innovations.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

It can be inferred from the passage that archaeological sites are considered important by some source countries because they give a boost to the tourism sector. The passage suggests that new archaeological discoveries typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride, which is beneficial to the source countries, especially those in the developing world. This aligns with the idea that the identification and preservation of these sites can have positive economic and cultural impacts, as tourists are often drawn to countries with rich archaeological and historical attractions.

The other options are not correct inferences based on the passage:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the sites themselves are not symbols of Western imperialism; rather, the manner in which artifacts were acquired during the "age of piracy" reflects Western cultural imperialism.

- Option 2 is incorrect because, while funds might be necessary for archaeological work, the passage does not explicitly state that the sites themselves generate these funds.

- Option 4 is incorrect because the passage argues that strict patrimony laws may actually inhibit the discovery and reporting of new sites, rather than being a reason for their importance.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Option 3 is correct because it directly challenges the central idea of the passage that strict cultural patrimony laws may inadvertently reduce the discovery of new archaeological sites by diminishing incentives for foreign archaeological investment. If UNESCO finances archaeological research in poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries, this external funding could mitigate the negative impacts of strict patrimony laws by providing necessary resources and support for continued archaeological exploration and discovery. This would allow more discoveries to occur despite the strict laws, thus undermining the passage's argument that strict laws reduce the number of new discoveries and suggesting that effective preservation and exploration can coexist with external support.

The other options do not effectively undermine the passage's central idea:
- Option 1 suggests that local museums can display artifacts, which aligns with the goals of patrimony laws and doesn't necessarily contradict the issues arising from strict laws inhibiting new discoveries.

- Option 2 addresses historical accountability but doesn't directly impact the current efficacy of cultural patrimony laws in promoting discoveries.

- Option 4 indicates that some countries might independently fund excavations, which doesn't address the broader issue of how strict laws impact international collaborations and discoveries.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

The passage suggests that source countries benefit from easing strict patrimony laws to allow more discoveries and international collaboration. It highlights the importance of foreign investment and the potential advantages of collaborative archaeological efforts. However, advising source countries to fund institutes in other countries to undertake archaeological exploration in the source country (Option 3) seems less feasible or practical, especially for "poor" countries. The focus in the passage is more on how to make archaeological exploration attractive and beneficial to source countries while protecting their cultural heritage, not necessarily on investing their limited resources abroad.

The other options are more aligned with the inferred advice based on the passage:
- Option 1 about motivating other countries to finance explorations aligns with the idea of increasing archaeological discoveries and international investment.
- Option 2 suggests allowing foreign analysis and exhibition, which could be part of a collaborative approach to archaeology.

- Option 4 refers to adopting China's strategy post-2003 for more international collaboration and research, which seems in line with the passage's suggestions for more open and beneficial archaeological practices. However, the author doesn't explicitly recommend completely dropping all cultural property laws, but rather easing them to a more balanced approach.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Option 4 best expresses the paradox of patrimony laws as discussed in the passage. These laws were intended to protect cultural property from being looted and exported, thus preserving a country's historical and cultural heritage. However, the passage suggests that an unintended consequence of these strict laws is a reduction in new archaeological discoveries. This reduction is due to diminished incentives for foreign investment and collaboration in archaeological exploration. This paradox highlights the conflict between the intent of preserving cultural heritage and the unintended stifling of new discoveries that could enrich our understanding of history and culture.

The other options don't capture the paradox as directly or are less supported by the passage:

- Option 1 mentions the withholding of national treasure from museums, but the central paradox discussed in the passage is not about withholding from museums but about the overall reduction in discoveries.

- Option 2 focuses on the business impact on auctioneers, which, while possibly true, is not the central focus of the paradox discussed in the passage.

- Option 3 talks about the neglect of historical sites, which is a concern but not the primary unintended consequence highlighted in the passage. The main issue is the decrease in discoveries, not necessarily the neglect of sites that are already known.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Option 3 is the correct choice as it best reflects the passage's explanation of how recent studies on romanticism approach the subject. These studies aim to characterize romanticism in terms of "particular philosophical questions and concerns" rather than a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place. This approach acknowledges the undeniable differences between the romanticisms of different nations and seeks to understand romanticism based on the deeper, underlying themes and questions that were central to the romantic thinkers. By focusing on the fundamental concerns of the romantics, these studies strive to provide a more nuanced and accurate portrayal of the movement.

The other options do not accurately capture the reasons described in the passage:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the variety of romanticisms makes general analysis impossible, but rather that it necessitates a different approach.

- Option 2 is incorrect because the goal of recent studies is not primarily to discredit Lovejoy's skepticism; instead, they are responding to it by seeking a more nuanced understanding.

- Option 4 is incorrect because the focus is not specifically on highlighting the paradox but on understanding the core philosophical concerns that define romanticism.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Option 2 is the correct choice as it best reflects the view of the romantics regarding aesthetics. According to the passage, the most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that "the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life." This implies that for the romantics, aesthetics is not limited to a specific domain, but instead permeates all aspects of human life, both philosophical and mundane. They believed that beauty and art should be central not only in a philosophical or artistic life but also in the lives of ordinary men and women, indicating a comprehensive and pervasive approach to aesthetics.

The other options do not align with the romantic view of aesthetics as described in the passage:

- Option 1 is incorrect because it opposes the romantics' view that aesthetics should influence all aspects of life, not be confined to a specific domain.

- Option 3 is incorrect because, while the romantics were often poets and artists themselves, they advocated for the importance of aesthetics in the lives of all people, not just a select few.

- Option 4 is incorrect because the passage indicates that the romantics considered aesthetics to be fundamentally important to human existence, not irrelevant.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Option 3 is NOT supported by the passage. The passage states that recent studies on romanticism attempt to characterize romanticism in terms of "particular philosophical questions and concerns" rather than trying to refute the differences between national romanticisms. These studies acknowledge the undeniable differences between the romanticisms of different nations highlighted by scholars like Lovejoy, suggesting that they seek to understand and characterize these variations rather than refute them.

Looking at the other options,
1. Many romantics rejected the idea of aesthetics as a domain separate from other aspects of life. - This statement is supported by the passage, which describes the most characteristic romantic commitment as the belief that the character of art and beauty should shape all aspects of human life.

2. Romantic aesthetics are primarily expressed through fragments, aphorisms, and poems. - This statement is supported by the passage, which notes that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views are often found in more elusive and suggestive forms like fragments, aphorisms, and poems rather than in developed theoretical accounts.

4. Characterising romantic aesthetics is both possible and desirable, despite the challenges involved. - This statement is supported by the passage, which, while acknowledging the challenges and skepticism around defining romanticism, suggests that characterizing romantic aesthetics is a worthwhile endeavor that has been pursued by numerous thinkers.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Option 2 is the correct choice as it aligns with the passage's description of the main difficulty in studying romanticism. According to the passage, Lovejoy claimed that the word 'romantic' has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing. This highlights the lack of clear conceptual contours of the domain of romanticism, indicating that the main difficulty is the absence of any single real entity or type of entity that the concept 'romanticism' designates.

The other options are not supported by the passage as the main difficulty:
- Option 1 is incorrect because the passage doesn't claim an absence of written accounts; rather, it mentions that romantic views are often found in fragments, aphorisms, and poems.

- Option 3 is incorrect because, while romantic literature may have a controversial history, this is not identified as the main difficulty in studying romanticism.

- Option 4 is incorrect because, although the elusive and suggestive nature of romantic aesthetics adds to the challenge of characterizing it, the passage specifically emphasizes the lack of a clear, singular entity that defines romanticism as the main difficulty.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Option 1: Placing the sentence here would introduce the theoretical perspective too early, before the paragraph has begun to define what an argument is. It's more logical to first understand what an argument is and then discuss the theoretical perspectives surrounding it.

Option 2: This option would interrupt the flow between defining an argument and explaining the different ways premises can support conclusions. It doesn't provide a natural transition or contrast at this point.

Option 3: This is the correct position, as it bridges the theoretical definitions and explanations of arguments with the upcoming discussion about the practical application of these theories in human communicative practices. It contrasts the theoretical abstraction with practical usage.

Option 4: Placing the sentence here would be after the discussion has already moved towards practical considerations. It would be less effective as it would disrupt the concluding thoughts on applying theoretical concepts to practical scenarios.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct choice as it effectively transitions from theoretical discussions of arguments to considering their practical applications, underscoring the dual focus of theoretical abstraction and practical relevance in understanding arguments.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Placing the sentence at Option 3 provides a transition from the discussion of the financial dynamics of armed conflict and how crime can lengthen or intensify conflicts into the broader implications of these conflicts on societal structures and governance. The sentence introduces the concept that armed conflict does more than disrupt state control; it also fosters conditions conducive to the growth of organized crime. This broader implication helps transition into the idea of a 'criminalized peace,' where the aftermath of conflict sees a continuation of criminal activities, impacting peacebuilding efforts.

- Option 1: Placing it here would preempt the more specific discussion of the linkages between illicit arms, organized crime, and armed conflict without first establishing the basic dynamics and implications of these relationships.

- Option 2: This position would interrupt the flow of detailing how financial gains from crime affect armed conflicts, which is more focused on the mechanics of funding and supporting conflict through illicit means.

- Option 3: This position effectively bridges the discussion from the specific consequences of crime on conflicts to the broader, overarching impact of armed conflict on creating an environment conducive to organized crime. It provides a thematic linkage to the concluding part of the paragraph discussing 'criminalized peace.'

- Option 4: Placing it here would be too late, as it would come after the discussion of 'criminalized peace,' which is a concept that builds upon the understanding of how armed conflict fosters environments enabling crime.

Therefore, Option 3 is the most logical and coherent placement for the sentence, effectively linking the specific impacts of crime on armed conflict to the broader social and governance issues arising in the aftermath of such conflicts.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Sentence 2 stands out as the odd one because it diverges from the primary narrative of shifting hiring priorities towards soft skills. While Sentences 1, 3, 4, and 5 collectively outline the evolving hiring practices, highlight the value of soft skills, and consider the pandemic's influence, Sentence 2 broaches a broader notion of reevaluating the ideal candidate, not pinpointing the increased emphasis on soft skills. This broader perspective on redefining the ideal candidate doesn't align as closely with the specific theme of adapting hiring criteria to include soft skills, distinguishing it from the rest.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Sentence 4 introduces the main topic of the last speaker of an ancient tribal language passing away, establishing the significance of the event.
Sentence 1 provides specific details about Boa Senior, the last fluent speaker of the Bo language, including key events she lived through, tying back to the loss mentioned in Sentence 4.
Sentence 3 gives background information about the Bo language itself, linking it to the broader context of the Great Andamanese languages and their historical significance.
Sentence 5 continues the narrative by discussing the linguistic aspect of Boa Senior's life, mentioning that despite linguistic research, she spent her last years unable to converse in her mother tongue.
In contrast, Sentence 2, while related to the historical and cultural context of the Andaman Islands, focuses more on the long-term demographic changes rather than directly contributing to the narrative about the loss of the language and its last speaker. It doesn't seamlessly integrate into the specific story of the language's demise and Boa Senior's experience as the other sentences do. Therefore, it stands out as the odd one in forming a coherent paragraph about the extinction of the Bo language and its last native speaker.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation: 

Sentence 2 introduces the impact of the printing press on learning, shifting from a culture of listening and memorization to a different mode. This sentence sets the historical context of learning before the printing press and should be the starting point.

Sentence 4 continues from Sentence 2 by detailing how the printing press shifted the learning process from listening and memorization to reading and independent learning. This sentence logically follows the introduction of the printing press's impact.

Sentence 3 discusses the broader social and cultural transformation as learners transitioned from listeners to readers and mentions the historical timeline extending to the industrial era and the concept of universal literacy. This sentence expands on the transformation initiated by the printing press.
Sentence 1 concludes the paragraph by relating the historical context to contemporary times, noting that despite other technologies like film, radio, and television, reading remains a central part of formal learning.

Thus, the proper sequence for the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is 2, 4, 3, 1

This sequence progresses logically from the introduction of the printing press's impact on learning to the long-term social and cultural transformation, concluding with a modern perspective on the persistence of reading in education.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Sentence 3 sets the stage by introducing the problem: e-waste contains valuable materials that are not sufficiently salvaged and recycled.

Sentence 1 introduces Veena Sahajwalla, a materials scientist who believes there is a new way to solve the e-waste problem. This introduces the protagonist after the problem is stated.

Sentence 4 elaborates on Veena Sahajwalla's plans to build microfactories to address the e-waste issue, providing a more detailed look at her solution.
Sentence 2 provides further details on how these microfactories would function, using automated drones and robots to extract metals for reuse.

Therefore, the proper sequence of sentences to form a coherent paragraph is 3, 1, 4, 2.

This order logically introduces the problem of e-waste, the scientist proposing a solution, the concept of her solution, and finally the details of how it would work.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Option 1 best captures the essence of the passage. The passage discusses how societal expectations and the pursuit of perfectionism have evolved from a desire to conform to mass cultural norms in the 1950s (where the ideal was to look like everyone else, only better) to the present day, where there's a pressure to stand out with one's unique style and wit in order to gain attention. The summary in Option 1 accurately reflects this shift from conformism to non-conformism, highlighting the change in how people feel pressured to appear perfect over time.

The other options don't encapsulate the passage as precisely:

Option 2 emphasizes the role of media in reflecting and perpetuating the image of perfectionism. While media influence is implied in the passage through the reference to "famous advertising images," this option doesn't cover the full scope of the evolution from conformist to individualistic perfectionism.

Option 3 focuses on the tensions and conflicts arising from the changing nature of perfectionism. While the passage does suggest that perfectionism is multifarious and contradictory, leading to it being "draining," this option doesn't clearly convey the historical evolution of perfectionism as described.

Option 4 suggests that the deep-rooted desire to attract attention drives individuals to extreme lengths. While the passage does mention the "attention economy" in the context of modern perfectionism, this option doesn't capture the contrast between past and present ideals of perfectionism or the societal aspect of these pressures.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Option 1 best captures the essence of the passage. The passage describes the improvement in the birds' lives on the island following the removal of pests, leading to an increase in their numbers. As the birds return and contribute nutrients to the soil through their droppings, there is a positive impact on the vegetation, which in turn supports the birds further. This cycle is described as a "wonderful feedback loop." Additionally, the transformation of the landscape is mentioned, with the tussock growing taller and the spread of previously protected plants. The summary in Option 1 reflects the revival of birds and plants due to the improved conditions on the island, indicating the absence of pests and a protected environment.

The other options don't encapsulate the passage as effectively:

Option 2 mentions a "huge positive transformation" which is true, but it implies that the transformation is due to the island being brought under environmental protection, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. The focus is more on the natural revival and interdependence of birds and plants rather than a specific environmental protection action.

Option 3 focuses on the protection of plants and birds on the island but does not capture the interactive nature of the ecosystem's recovery or the specific improvements and changes described in the passage.

Option 4 is incorrect because it mentions the increasing number of predatory birds and plants despite pests, which contradicts the passage's focus on recovery after the removal of pests. It also incorrectly suggests that pests are still present, which is not indicated in the passage.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test

The tentative table can be drawn as below:

Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60

The new table becomes:

Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64

∴ Rini’s score in the project was 60

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test

The tentative table can be drawn as below:

Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60

The new table becomes:

Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64

∴ Weight of the test component was 0.6

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test

The tentative table can be drawn as below:

Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60

The new table becomes:

Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64

∴ Max aggregate score = 68

Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test

The tentative table can be drawn as below:

Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60

The new table becomes:

Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64

∴ Mathew’s score in the test = 40

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

3 female students - A, K, R
3 male students - B, M, S
2 evaluation components - Project and Test
Final score is the weighted avg of both, with weights adding to 1
Projects done in groups of 1 male + 1 female. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project
- Min (40), Max (80) and the Avg (60) of both project and test scores were identical.
=> Project scores will be 40, 40, 60, 60, 80, 80
- Test scores of the students were multiples of 10; 4 of them were distinct and the remaining 2 were equal to the average test scores.
∴ 40, 50, 60, 60, 70, 80 are the test scores
- A’s score in the project is double of K
=> K (40), A (80) in project
Since there are 3 project groups consisting of a male and female each, R must have 60 marks in the project.
- K scored 20 more than A in test.
- A had the highest aggregate score
- S scored 2nd highest in test i.e., 70.
- S scored 2 more than K and 2 less than A in aggregate
- B scored 2nd lowest in test i.e., 50, and lowest in aggregate
- M scored more than R in project
=> M must have scored 80 as that is the only score higher than 60 in project
- M scored less than R in test

The tentative table can be drawn as below:

Since A has the highest aggregate score, y can’t be 40 as then M will have a higher aggregate score.
So, y = 60
Since M has scored less than R in test
=> In test, M = 40, R = 60

The new table becomes:

Aggregate score of A - Aggregate score of K = 4
=> 60x+80(1-x) - {80x+40(1-x)} = 4
=> 40-60x = 4
=> x = 0.6
=> a = 80*0.6 + 40*0.4 = 64

∴ Neither i) Amala and Biman nor ii) Koli and Mathew were part of one project team.
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E

At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.

The below table can be filled based on the given information.

Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F

The final table is as shown below.

F is visited 3 times, C 3 times, D 2 times, E 5/6 times
∴ E is visited the most

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E

At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.

The below table can be filled based on the given information.

Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F

The final table is as shown below.

∴ The teams pass B 2 times in a day

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E

At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.

The below table can be filled based on the given information.

Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F

The final table is as shown below.

∴ Team 3 patrols D-E at 10:15 AM

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E

At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.

The below table can be filled based on the given information.

Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F

The final table is as shown below.

∴ Team 4 passes E 2 times in a day

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
6 police stations, 4 teams, start from A at 9 AM, return to A at 12 PM, 30 mins to move from one station to another
- None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
- Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
- Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
- Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
=> Team 4 moves between A, C, and E

At 9:30 and 11:30, all 4 will be at different stations as they travel from and to A respectively.
The below table can be filled based on the given information.

Now, Team 4 was at E at 11:30. As it moves between A, C and E only, it will have to be at A at 11 AM
Since Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs, Team 4 must be at C at 10:30 AM and at A at 10 AM
Since Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E, Team 3 cannot take route A-E-D to reach D at 10 AM. Hence, it will be at C at 9:30 AM
For Team 3, E-D-C-A is the only possible route to reach A at 12 PM starting from E at 10:30 AM
∴ Team 2 will be at F at 11:30 AM
Team 2 can reach F at 11:30 AM being at E at 10 AM through E-F-A/E-F
The final table is as shown below.

∴ Teams 3 and 4, i.e., 2 teams pass through C in a day

Correct Answer is D

Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.

Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Total registrations in April = 120

Correct Answer is C

Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.

Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Number of online registrations in January = 40

Correct Answer is D

Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.

Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ The number of offline registrations was the smallest in May. The total number of registrations was NOT the smallest in February

Correct Answer is B

Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.

Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Number of offline registrations in Feb = 50

Correct Answer is A

Offline in May cannot be less than 30 as 30 is the minimum for offline. Also, it cannot be more than 30 as maximum total for a month is 130.
∴ Offline in May = 30, and total in May = 130
For Jan, x can only be 40 (minimum) because if it is more than 40, say 50, then Total will become 3x = 150 which is more than the maximum total.
For April, y can’t be 30 (min) as then the total will be 90 which is less than the minimum total.
y cannot be 50 either as then the total will be 150 which is more than the maximum total.
∴ y = 40
If z = 50, online for Feb cannot be less than 80 as then the median would not remain 80. It cannot be more than 80 as well as then total for the month would exceed 130 (max).
∴ online for Feb = 80
=> Total for March will be 110
Hence, Offline for March = 60
The below table is a possibility.

Now, if offline for March is 50, and March total is 110, z becomes 60.
Now, online for Feb can only be 80 for the online median to remain 80, but then total for Feb would exceed 130.
Hence, 110 total for March is a wrong assumption.
Let 110 be the total for Feb and offline for March be 50.
If z = 60, online for Feb = 50 which changes the median of Online from 80 to 60.
Similarly for z = 70 and 80, the median for online changes from 80.
Hence, this is also a wrong assumption.
∴ The above table where we assumed z = 50 is correct.
∴ Both January and April, and February and May had the same total number of registrations.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.

2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below

2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.

∴ D2 sold 14 split inverter ACs

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.

2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.

2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.

∴ 15/60 i.e., 25% ACs sold were of Non Inverter type

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.

2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.

2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.

∴ Total ACs sold by D2 and D4 = 60-(15+12) = 33

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a table like this can be drawn.

2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.

2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.

∴ As we saw in the last question, D2 and D4 sold more ACs (33) than D1 and D3 (27)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
● Total ACs sold - 25% Window, 75% Split
● Inverter ACs - 20% Window, 80% Split
● Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
● D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
● A total of 6 Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
● The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
● D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
● D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Based on the raw information above, a
table like this can be drawn.

2y+y = 6 => y = 2
4b = 36 => b = 9
c+3x+x+x = 15
=> c + 5x = 15
Since x and c both have to be minimum 2, x = 2, c = 5 is the only possible solution.
More values can be filled in the cells as shown in the table below.

2z + z + z + 8 = 36
=> z = 7
The final table that we can draw is as shown below.

∴ If D3 and D4 sold an equal number of ACs, D2 would have sold 5 Non-inverter ACs

Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Correct answer is B

Explanation:

Correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Correct answer is D

Explanation:

Correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Let the avg weight of A, B, C be z kgs
D’s weight = (z - x) - 3x = z - 4x i.e, D’s weight is x less than the avg weight of A,B,C and an additional 3x less to account for the decrease in the avg weights of A,B,C
Similarly, E’s weight = (z + 2x) + 3(2x) = z + 8x
Difference in weights = (z + 8x) - (z - 4x) = 12
=> x = 1

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:

Correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Correct answer is B.

Explanation:
Profit per 100 m of cloth bought = 5%
Profit due to selling at Rs. 10 higher = 10%
Profit due to cheating = (5/95)100 = 5.26%
Discount given = 5%
Using Multiplication Factor approach, 1.05 x 1.10 x 1.0526 x 0.95 = 1.155
∴ Resultant profit = 15.5%
Correct Answer is D

Explanation:
Rahul + Rakshita + Gurmeet > 7 days
Rahul + Gurmeet < 15 days
From the given options, it is quite intuitive that Rakshita will not take either of the extreme days i.e., 16 or 21
Now if Rakshita takes 21 days to complete the whole work alone, she will do 3/21 = 1/7 work in 3 days (from the given scenario that 6 days all 3 + 3 days Rakshita = 1 work completed)
=> All 3 did 6/7 work in 6 days
So, 1 work will be done by all in 6x7/6 = 7 days
But it is given that all 3 take more than 7 days to complete the work.
∴ Rakshita cannot take 21 days to complete the work
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Mix A sugar proportion = 2/5
Mix B sugar proportion = 3/10
2/5 3/10
\ /
x
/ \
m n
= 2 : 3
(x - 3/10)/(2/5 - x) = 2/3
=> 3x - 9/10 = 4/5 - 2x
=> 5x = 17/10
=> x = 17/50 i.e., C has the proportion of sugar as 17/50
Equal amounts of milk added to C makes the total quantity of mixture = 50+50 = 100
∴ Percentage of sugar = 17%
Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Let there be a total of 10x fruits: 4x mangoes, y apples, 6x-y bananas
Sold: 2x mangoes, 0.4y apples, 96 bananas
2(2x + 0.4y + 96) = 10x
=> 6x = 0.8y + 192
=> 10x = 4y/3 + 320
If y = 3, x = 32.4
=> 4x, 6x-y won’t be natural numbers
y = 6, y = 9, y = 12 also do not give a possible result
For y = 15, x = 34 which is a natural number.
∴ Total fruits at the start of the day = 10x = 340
Correct Answer is C

Explanation:
Let G and S do x and y units of work daily totaling a total of 1 i.e., x + y = 1
Also, 0.6x + 1.5y = 1
Solving the 2 equations, we get
0.9y = 0.4
=> y = 4/9, x = 5/9
∴ The faster one will take 20/(5/9) = 36 days to complete the work
Correct Answer is B

Explanation:

Correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation:
Interior angle of a polygon with n sides = (n-2)180/n
Exterior angle = 360/n
360/n - (n-2)180/n = 120
=> 720/n = 300
n does not come out to be a natural number.
Let’s try (n-2)180/n - 360/n = 120
=> 60 = 720/n
=> n = 12
∴ Number of diagonals = n(n-3)/2 = 54
Or
I + E = 180, I - E = 120
=> I = 150, E = 30 = 360/n
=> n = 12
∴ Number of diagonals = n(n-3)/2 = 54
Correct Answer is C

Explanation:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation:
f(3x+2y, 2x-5y) = 19x
RHS is independent of y
We will have to do something to eliminate y from LHS
a(3x+2y) + b(2x-5y) = 19x
For a = 5, b = 2, y gets eliminated and we get 19x on LHS
=> 5x + 2(2x) = 27
∴ x = 3
Correct Answer is D